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In working with QFT and Maxwell's equations, terms such as:$$\left(\partial_\mu\,A^\mu\right)^{2}$$ often appear. Since I am new to this, I am not sure of the expansion. That is, is it 4 terms squared or is it 4 squard terms: $$\left(\partial_0 A^0\right)^{2} + \left(\partial_1 A^1\right)^{2} +\left(\partial_2 A^{2}\right)^{2} +\left(\partial_3 A^3\right)^{2}$$Or, $$\left(\partial_0 A^0 + \partial_1 A^1 +\partial_2 A^{2} +\partial_3 A^3\right)^{2}$$

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2 Answers 2

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Here, standard rules of algebra should apply, i.e. the summation should be performed first and then squared (it is obvious once you write out the summation symbol instead of using Einstein's notation): $$(\partial_\mu A^\mu)^2 = \left( \sum_{\mu=0}^3 \partial_\mu A^\mu \right)^2 = (\partial_0 A^0 + \dots)^2$$

Note that expressions using covariant notation (with valid use Einstein's summation convention) are automatically Lorentz-invariant. You can quickly convince yourself that the first expression you propose is no longer covariant.

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  • $\begingroup$ I thought that too and it was my first assumption, even to the point of explicitly writing out the summatioin sign. However, other documents I have looked at suggest that it might be interpreted as individual terms. Of course, it I am drawing from several different sources so I am unsure of the correct interpretation. $\endgroup$
    – K7PEH
    Commented Nov 11, 2021 at 3:07
  • $\begingroup$ @K7PEH Great that you got it right in the first try, as well! Could you give us a reference where this is suggested, maybe there was some special context? $\endgroup$
    – Faser
    Commented Nov 11, 2021 at 6:15
  • $\begingroup$ I was reading one of David Tong's lecture notes on QFT. The source expression of my question was the Lagrangian shown in equation 1.18 of the first lecture of QFT. But, there is another term in that expression and I knew that there were squared terms but did not know which of the two terms produced the squared term. Not a clear description I know. But, I am going to spend more time practicing the expansion of the notation. $\endgroup$
    – K7PEH
    Commented Nov 11, 2021 at 16:25
  • $\begingroup$ Ah, are you referring to $L \sim 1/2 \dot{A}_i^2$? I think this is supposed to be a schematic notation, i.e. he is referring to one element of the sum with just some index $i$. probably not the most clear notation … $\endgroup$
    – Faser
    Commented Nov 11, 2021 at 19:33
  • $\begingroup$ Thanks for the comment. Yes, that was one of the squared terms but another was one of my other texts but now I am not sure now if that was referring to the same Lagrangian orgin as this example in Tong's notes. $\endgroup$
    – K7PEH
    Commented Nov 11, 2021 at 20:58
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Reference : Squaring the E&M (Maxwell) field strength tensor.

Looking at equation (06) of my answer in above link we realize that this square comes from the expression \begin{equation} \left(\partial^{\mu}A_{\mu}\right)\left(\partial_{\nu}A^{\nu}\right)\boldsymbol{=}\left(\partial_{\mu}A^{\mu}\right)\left(\partial_{\nu}A^{\nu}\right)\boldsymbol{=}\left(\partial_{\mu}A^{\mu}\right)^2 \tag{06}\label{06} \end{equation} so is the square of a sum and not the sum of squares.

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  • $\begingroup$ (a) makes no sense. $\endgroup$
    – J.G.
    Commented Nov 11, 2021 at 17:07
  • $\begingroup$ I agree with @J.G. : (a) does not maintain Lorentz covariance! I think it is because you are explicitly breaking the linearity of the inner product induced by the metric here $\endgroup$
    – Faser
    Commented Nov 11, 2021 at 19:35

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