I'm trying to learn about relativistic electrodynamics on my own, and I am struggling with derivatives of the 4-potential and index (Einstein) notation.
I think I understand expressions such as $\partial_\mu A^\mu$. The index is repeated and is once up and once down, so I would expand the sum as: $\partial_0 A^0 + \partial_1 A^1 + \partial_2 A^2 + \partial_3 A^3$, which gives me a scalar.
How am I to interpret something like this: $(\partial_\mu A_\nu)(\partial^\mu A^\nu)$ ? We are summing over the two indices this time, which is fine. What confuses me is that we are taking a covariant derivative of a covariant vector. Does one need to "convert" $A_\nu$ in the first term to contravariant, like so: $(\partial_\mu A^\rho \eta_{\nu\rho})(\partial^\mu A_\sigma\eta^{\nu\sigma})$?
I guess my doubts arise from the fact that I see a covariant vector as being an entirely different object from a contravariant one. The covariant derivative $\partial_\mu = \frac{\partial}{\partial x^\mu}$ differentiates with respect to the components of the contravariant vector $x$. So I don't understand how such an operation can be applied to a vector that isn't also contravariant.
- How should I interpret terms such as $(\partial_\mu A^\mu)^2$ ? Is it just $\left(\partial_0 A^0 + \partial_1 A^1 + \partial_2 A^2 + \partial_3 A^3\right)^2$ or is there something else going on?
- According to some textbook, $(\partial_\mu \phi)^2 = \eta^{\mu\nu}\partial_\mu \phi\partial_\nu\phi$, but I don't understand why. For me $\partial_\mu \phi$ is just the derivative of a scalar $\phi$ with respect to some (unspecified) component $\mu$ of a contravariant 4-vector $x$. Instead, judging from the right-hand side, it is to be interpreted as a vector $(\frac{\partial}{\partial x^0},\boldsymbol{\nabla})\phi$ which is then squared. Is it just sloppy notation, or am I being stupid?
Thanks.
EDIT:
- Are the following then true? $$\frac{\partial}{\partial(\partial_\mu A_\nu)} \left(\partial_\mu A_\nu\right) = 1$$ $$\frac{\partial}{\partial(\partial_\mu A_\nu)} \left(\partial^\mu A^\nu\right) = 0$$
- Can I also raise and lower the indices of a partial derivative?