In his Introduction to Electrodynamics, D.J. Griffiths is warning against the idea that magnetic fields $\vec B$ and $\vec H$ are similar. Here is a passage:
The equation 6.20 he is talking about is $\oint \vec{H}\cdot d\vec{r}=I_f$, where $I_f$ is the free current.
Fine. Then he presents a problem. Image below.
When I look at the solution, what do I find? He concludes that $\vec H=0$ because there is no free current. Image below
Well, now, isn't this precisely what he just warned the reader against doing??