2
$\begingroup$

In his atomic model, Niels Bohr proposed that electrons can be present only in those orbits where their angular momenta is an integral multiple of $\frac{h}{2π}$. That is

$mvr=\frac{nh}{2π}$, where $n=1,2,3,...$

But how did Bohr get this expression? I know that later de Broglie derived this equation by assuming that electrons were actually standing waves. But how did Bohr get this expression. How did he derive it? There is literally no proof of this equation in my book. I am so confused. Can someone provide me the proof of this equation. Please help.

Improve this question
$\endgroup$
7
  • $\begingroup$ I was a postulate of Bohr or in other words a guess $\endgroup$
    – amilton moreira
    Commented May 23, 2021 at 6:33
  • $\begingroup$ Here you go: [Revisiting Bohr’s quantization hypothesis for the atomic orbitals] arxiv.org/abs/physics/0608102 $\endgroup$
    – Areeb Ahmad
    Commented May 23, 2021 at 6:56
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ What is the proof? There isn’t one. You are confused about the nature of theories/models in physics. One cannot mathematically prove their basic assumptions. The only “proof” of their postulates is if the model works experimentally by making correct predictions. Then the assumptions were useful (but not necessarily true) ones. $\endgroup$
    – G. Smith
    Commented May 23, 2021 at 7:16
  • $\begingroup$ My guess regarding why Bohr tried this assumption: He probably knew that for circular orbits under an inverse-square force one has $E\propto 1/L^2$. So if he quantized the angular momentum he could get the Rydberg formula. $\endgroup$
    – G. Smith
    Commented May 23, 2021 at 7:34
  • $\begingroup$ proof according to which axioms? in which theoretical framework do you want a proof? what are the givens? $\endgroup$
    – AccidentalFourierTransform
    Commented May 23, 2021 at 9:23

0

Reset to default