0
$\begingroup$

I've got a question regarding the position operator. As far as I learned it, the position operator simply gets defined by saying:

$\hat{x} \ \psi(x,t) = x \ \psi(x,t)$

And I also learned that the momentum representation of the position operator is defined as ($p,k$ used interchangeably):

$(\hat{x})_p = i \frac{\partial}{\partial k}$

I'm a bit confused about that. Why is this the "momentum" representation? Let's say I have a plane wave

$\psi(x,t)=e^{i(kx-\omega t)}$

If I wanted to define the position operator, I would just do it like that:

$\hat{x} e^{i(kx-\omega t)} = -i \frac{\partial}{\partial k} e^{i(kx-\omega t)} = x e^{i(kx-\omega t)}$

So why does this look like the momentum representation of the position operator (except for the sign)?

I was just wondering since I never learned the "explicit form" of the position operator. I just learned what it does, namely:

$\hat{x} \ \psi(x,t) = x \ \psi(x,t)$

But my question is, what does $\hat{x} = \cdots$ look like specifically? Does the explicit form of $\hat{x} = \cdots$ depend on the function I'm using it on?

$\endgroup$
5
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Related : Hermiticity of Momentum Operator (matrix) Represented in Position Basis. $\endgroup$
    – Voulkos
    Commented Apr 27, 2021 at 14:46
  • $\begingroup$ This is not how position operator defined, but the eigenvalue equation for its eigenfunctions. Note that all these questions are dealt with in the first chapters of any QM textbook... $\endgroup$
    – Roger V.
    Commented Apr 27, 2021 at 14:51
  • $\begingroup$ Keep in mind the momentum representation of the position operator should be applied to the momentum wave function, not the position wave function. $\endgroup$
    – R. Romero
    Commented Apr 27, 2021 at 14:58
  • $\begingroup$ Much of your dilemma evaporates upon using the proper definition, $\hat x \equiv \int\!\!dx ~ |x\rangle x\langle x|= \int\!\!dp ~|p\rangle i\partial_p \langle p|$. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 27, 2021 at 19:51
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @Vadim I think the OP is referring to $\langle x|\hat X|\psi\rangle=x\psi(x)$. It doesn't have to be about position eigenstates. Additionaly, I don't think Griffiths QM hits deeper formalism like this until chapter 3, and even then I don't recall it being entirely rigorous (it's rigorous enough for undergrad at least). $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 27, 2021 at 20:06

1 Answer 1

5
$\begingroup$

Let us first clarify that things like $\hat{x}\,\psi(x)$ in fact mean

$$ (\hat{x}\psi)(x) \equiv \langle x| \hat{x} |\psi\rangle \quad .$$ We further define the wave function as $$ \psi(x) \equiv \langle x|\psi\rangle \quad. $$

Similar equations hold for the case of the momentum operator / basis. In the following we set $\hbar=1$.


The position representation of the position and momentum operator is (very nicely explained here):

\begin{align} \langle x|\hat{x} &= \langle x| \,x \\ \langle x| \hat{p} &= - i \,\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x} \langle x| \quad . \end{align} This should look familiar to you: Evaluated in the position basis, the position operator acts as a multiplicative operator while the momentum operator acts as a derivative. Using the conventions from the beginning we then find \begin{align} (\hat{x}\psi)(x) &= x\, \psi(x) \\ (\hat{p}\psi)(x) &= - i \,\frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}x} \psi(x) \quad , \end{align}

which means for example that the projection of the vector $\hat{x}|\psi\rangle$ onto a state of the position basis is the number $ x\, \psi(x)$.

However, this does not mean that the momentum operator is a derivative; in the same sense, the position operator is not an operator multiplying 'everything' it acts on with $x$. Indeed, evaluated in the momentum basis, we find that the momentum operator is multiplicative and the position operator acts as a derivative: \begin{align} \langle p | \hat{x} &= i\, \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}p} \langle p|\\ \langle p | \hat{p } &= \langle p |\,p \quad . \end{align} See also this question and the links therein. This tells us that e.g. the projection of the vector $\hat{x}|\psi\rangle$ onto an element of the momentum basis is the number $i\, \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}p} \psi(p)$.

Finally, by making use of the completeness relations $\displaystyle \mathbb I = \int \mathrm dx \, |x\rangle \langle x| = \int \mathrm dp \, |p\rangle\langle p|$, we can express the action of the position operator $\hat{x}$ on a state $|\psi\rangle$ either as $$ \hat{x}|\psi\rangle = \int \mathrm{d}x\, x\, |x\rangle \langle x|\psi\rangle$$ or $$\hat{x}|\psi\rangle = i\,\int \mathrm{d}p \, |p\rangle \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}p}\langle p|\psi\rangle \quad .$$


Regarding your example: We know that $\langle x |p\rangle = e^{ipx}$ (up to some constant factor which I'll omit) and let's say we want to calculate $ \langle x |\hat{x}|p\rangle$, which is I think you meant by $\hat{x}\, e^{ipx}$.

Using the position representation of the position operator, we easily find $$\langle x |\hat{x}|p\rangle = x \, \langle x|p\rangle = x \,e^{ipx} \quad . $$

Performing the calculation within the momentum representation of the position operator yields:

$$\langle x |\hat{x}|p\rangle = \left({\langle p |\hat{x}^\dagger|x\rangle }\right)^* = \left({\langle p |\hat{x}|x\rangle }\right)^* = \left(i \frac{\mathrm{d}}{\mathrm{d}p} e^{-ipx}\right)^* = x \, e^{ipx} \quad ,$$ as expected.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.