0
$\begingroup$

Consider the de Sitter metric:

$$ds^2 = (1-\frac{r^2}{a^2})dt^2 -(1-\frac{r^2}{a^2})^{-1}dr^2-r^2d\Omega^2$$

I know that we rewrite the metric as $(u,r,\theta \phi)$ using the substitution $$u = t-atanh^{-1}(r/a)$$ as follows: $$ds^2 = (1-\frac{r^2}{a^2})du^2 +2drdu{}-r^2d\Omega^2$$

My question is why is the contravariant derivative satisfy the relation (this is something stated in my notes and am unsure why it is the case)

$$\nabla^au = (1-r^2/a^2)^{-1}\partial_t-\partial_r$$

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

$$\nabla^{a}u=g^{a\alpha }\nabla_{\alpha }u\overset{u\space is\space scale\space,\Gamma=0}{=}g^{a\alpha }\partial_{\alpha }u= g^{at }\partial_{t }u+g^{ar }\partial_{r }u=\frac{a^{2}}{a^2-r^2}(\frac{\partial}{\partial t})^{a}+(\frac{\partial}{\partial r})^{a}$$

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ can you just explain what that a around the derivative is exactly? $\endgroup$
    – DJA
    Commented Apr 8, 2021 at 1:38
  • $\begingroup$ Hi, $\nabla$is covariant derivative, but here it has upper index ,which could be risen by construction of metric $\endgroup$
    – explorer
    Commented Apr 8, 2021 at 4:47

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.