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Apologies for the noob question. I have seen people calculate the wavelength of the human body based on weins law as follows:

0.002898/310 = 0.00000934838 m

Plugging this into the equation λν = c we get

frequency = 299792458 / 0.00000934838 = 32069 Ghz

Elsewhere I see that the resonant frequencies of the human body (e.g the ocular cavity) are at around 20 Hz. I assume this is physical vibrational frequencies (and I even see papers on the fact that infrasound could cause undesirable effects due to this resonance). If so, electromagnetic resonance would be different than vibrational/acoustic resonance frequency. Am I right in my assumptions and in assuming that resonance would occur at either frequency? Assuming that all atoms vibrate at a certain frequency I am having trouble understanding how there can be two sets of frequencies for a human body. Just need clarification on this. Any help would be appreciated.

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  • $\begingroup$ do you mean en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wien%27s_displacement_law ? That has to do with the black body radiaton curve, it is not a unique frequency for the whole body but a frequency that fits the top of the curve $\endgroup$ – anna v Aug 25 '20 at 7:41
  • $\begingroup$ Yes. The frequency that fits the top of the curve. When people talk about acoustic and mechanical resonances such as this paper. link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s11069-013-0827-3 I am just trying to understand the science behind these low frequency sounds causing resonance in the human body. $\endgroup$ – Nathan M Aug 25 '20 at 14:23
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Wein's law is meaningless in the context of a human body. Anyone trying to perform that calculation is seriously misguided and the result will be meaningless as well.

The human body does exhibit acoustic and mechanical resonances at low frequencies; these have to do with the mechanical springiness of the body and how its mass is distributed. Any sort of electrical resonance that the human body might have would instead have to do with the body's electrical capacitance and inductance.

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