# Frequency of human body - EM vs vibrational?

Apologies for the noob question. I have seen people calculate the wavelength of the human body based on weins law as follows:

0.002898/310 = 0.00000934838 m

Plugging this into the equation λν = c we get

frequency = 299792458 / 0.00000934838 = 32069 Ghz

Elsewhere I see that the resonant frequencies of the human body (e.g the ocular cavity) are at around 20 Hz. I assume this is physical vibrational frequencies (and I even see papers on the fact that infrasound could cause undesirable effects due to this resonance). If so, electromagnetic resonance would be different than vibrational/acoustic resonance frequency. Am I right in my assumptions and in assuming that resonance would occur at either frequency? Assuming that all atoms vibrate at a certain frequency I am having trouble understanding how there can be two sets of frequencies for a human body. Just need clarification on this. Any help would be appreciated.

• do you mean en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wien%27s_displacement_law ? That has to do with the black body radiaton curve, it is not a unique frequency for the whole body but a frequency that fits the top of the curve – anna v Aug 25 '20 at 7:41
• Yes. The frequency that fits the top of the curve. When people talk about acoustic and mechanical resonances such as this paper. link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s11069-013-0827-3 I am just trying to understand the science behind these low frequency sounds causing resonance in the human body. – Nathan M Aug 25 '20 at 14:23