Apologies for the noob question. I have seen people calculate the wavelength of the human body based on weins law as follows:
0.002898/310 = 0.00000934838 m
Plugging this into the equation λν = c we get
frequency = 299792458 / 0.00000934838 = 32069 Ghz
Elsewhere I see that the resonant frequencies of the human body (e.g the ocular cavity) are at around 20 Hz. I assume this is physical vibrational frequencies (and I even see papers on the fact that infrasound could cause undesirable effects due to this resonance). If so, electromagnetic resonance would be different than vibrational/acoustic resonance frequency. Am I right in my assumptions and in assuming that resonance would occur at either frequency? Assuming that all atoms vibrate at a certain frequency I am having trouble understanding how there can be two sets of frequencies for a human body. Just need clarification on this. Any help would be appreciated.