I was studying the derivation of the relation between pressure ($P$) and root mean square speed ($v_{\text {RMS}}$) of an ideal gas from Fundamentals of Physics by Halliday, Resnick, Walker. (The same derivation can be found in Wikipedia page on kinetic theory of gases under "Equilibrium properties" section.)
One of the steps in the derivation process bothers me, which is illustrated below:
When a gas molecule collides with the wall of the container perpendicular to the x axis and bounces off in the opposite direction with the same speed (an elastic collision), the change in momentum is given by: $${\Delta p=p_{i,x}-p_{f,x}=p_{i,x}-(-p_{i,x})=2p_{i,x}=2mv_{x}}$$
where p is the momentum, i and f indicate initial and final momentum (before and after collision), x indicates that only the x direction is being considered, and v is the speed of the particle (which is the same before and after the collision).
The particle impacts one specific side wall once every $${\displaystyle \Delta t={\frac {2L}{v_{x}}}}$$ where L is the distance between opposite walls.
So far no problem, but now:
The force due to this particle is $$F={\frac {\Delta p}{\Delta t}}={\frac {mv_{x}^{2}}{L}}$$
- How/why did they substitute the time period between two successive collisions for a given molecule with time for which the force is applied?
I might be wrong, but aren't the two things (time period between two successive collision and of the collison) different and hence shouldn't be substituted for one another?