I came across this question: https://www.quora.com/How-do-you-prove-that-Newtons-2nd-law-non-relativistic-takes-the-same-form-in-all-inertial-frames-under-Galilean-transformations
Proving that Newton's 2nd Law is form invariant under Galiliean transformations - and I've noticed the approach described in the answer to that question is pretty standard. Mainly we prove that the acceleration is invariant, so $\vec a=\vec a\ '$. The mass is assumed invariant - fair enough. But most treatments that I've looked at upon google go on to show that since $\vec F=m\vec a$, and since mass and acceleration are unchanged, therefore the force must be the same under Galilean transformations.
But this is a proof of the invariance of $\vec F$, and not of the 2nd Law itself. To prove the form invariance of the law, we also have to show that $\vec F=\vec F\ '$. So how do we justify that $\vec F=\vec F\ '$?