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I have been given in our QM course, the task to show the differences between the number representation for fermions and bosons. I have had no problem with the mathematical aspects, but I have problems interpreting one of the results, and the books I have don't show a physical explanation for it.

For bosons the eigenvalues of the number operator are any natural number, whereas for fermions it's just 0 and 1. This is pretty logical from a mathematical perspective, since two consecutive applications of raising or lower operators in fermionic representation give zero, but what is the physical interpretation of this?

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2 Answers 2

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For fermions, this is just the Pauli Exclusion Principle, i.e. two identical fermions cannot occupy the same quantum state at the same time. On the other hand, for bosons, there is no such restriction.

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Let us consider the entire problem in Fock representation. If a quantum system is designated by, $|n_1, n_2, ..., n_M>$ where $n_i=$ the number pf particles in the $i^{\text th}$ state and $M$ is the total number of states. $\sum_i n_i=N=$ total number of particles.
Now, if $a_i$ and $a_i^{\dagger}$ are the annihilation and creation operators respectively, then for fermionic case, $$a_i|n_1, n_2, ..., n_M>={(-1)}^{\sum_k^{i-1} n_k}\sqrt {n_i}{|n_1,..., n_i-1, ..., n_M>}_F$$ $${a_i}^{\dagger}|n_1, n_2, ..., n_M>={(-1)}^{\sum_k^{i-1}n_k}\sqrt {n_i+1}{|n_1,..., n_i+1, ..., n_M>}_F$$ So, applying the number operator $N_i=a_i^{\dagger}a_i$ on a general quantum fermionic state like $|n_1, n_2, ..., n_M>_F$, we get, $$\begin{align} a_i^{\dagger}a_i|n_1, n_2, ..., n_M>_F&=a_i^{\dagger}{(-1)}^{\sum_k^{i-1} n_k}\sqrt {n_i}{|n_1,..., n_i-1, ..., n_M>_F}\\ &=\sqrt {n_i}\times \sqrt {n_i-1+1}{|n_1,..., n_i, ..., n_M>}_F\\ &=n_i{|n_1,..., n_i, ..., n_M>}_F \end{align}$$ So we see that the number operator when applied gives the number of particles in the $i^{\text {th}}$ state.

Now, for fermionic particles, there can be either $0$ or $1$ in any state(i.e., no two fermions can be in the same quantum state within a quantum system simultaneously)which follows from Pauli Exclusion Principle . This is valid for fermions which have half-integer spin and not for bosons which have integer spins. That is why $n_i=0$ or $1$ for fermions.
I hope this answers your question.

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  • $\begingroup$ Yes, it makes total sense now. Thank you very much! $\endgroup$ Commented Jun 3, 2020 at 11:22

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