I am confused about an aspect of coupling constant rescaling in the Wilsonian renormalization group procedure. (I'm following Kardar's "Statistical Physics of Fields, Ch5). I think I understand the basic idea of the renormalization group, but I'm in undergrad and haven't taken field theory or an advanced stat mech course so if I have a conceptual error somewhere I'd really appreciate any corrections.
The partition function for the Landau Ginzburg hamiltonian is written as ($\tilde{\vec{m}}(\mathbf{q}) \ \text{and }\sigma(\mathbf{q})$ are the splitting of the original field into slow and fast components)
$$ \begin{align} Z &= \int D\tilde{\vec{m}}(\mathbf{q})D\sigma(\mathbf{q}) \exp{\bigg\{- \int_{0}^{\Lambda} \frac{d^d \mathbf{q}}{(2\pi)^d} \bigg( \frac{t + K q^2}{2} \bigg) (|\tilde{m}(\mathbf{q})|^2} + |\sigma(\mathbf{q})|^2)-U[\tilde{\vec{m}}(\mathbf{q}),\sigma(\mathbf{q})] \bigg\}\\ &= \int D\tilde{\vec{m}}(\mathbf{q}) \exp{\bigg\{- \int_{0}^{\Lambda} \frac{d^d \mathbf{q}}{(2\pi)^d} \bigg( \frac{t + K q^2}{2} \bigg) (|\tilde{m}(\mathbf{q})|^2}\bigg\} \exp{\bigg\{-\frac{nV}{2} \int_{\Lambda/b}^{\Lambda} \frac{d^d \mathbf{q}}{(2\pi)^d} \log(t + K q^2) \bigg\}} \bigg\langle e^{-U[\tilde{\vec{m}},\vec{\sigma}]}\bigg\rangle_{\sigma} \end{align} $$ I think I understand the overall procedure: integrate out the momenta above the cutoff; rescale the momenta $\mathbf{q} = b^{-1} \mathbf{q}'$ and the field $\tilde{\vec{m}} = z {\vec{m}\,}'$. Then you get the new hamiltonian:
$$ (\beta H)'[m'] = V(\delta f_b^0 + u \delta f_b^1) + \int_{0}^{\Lambda} \frac{d^d \mathbf{q'}}{(2\pi)^d} b^{-d}z^2\bigg( \frac{\tilde{t} + K b^{-2} q'^2}{2} \bigg) |m'(\mathbf{q'})|^2 +u b^{-3d} z^4 \int_{0}^{\Lambda} \frac{d^d \mathbf{q}'_1 d^d \mathbf{q}'_2 d^d \mathbf{q}'_3 d^d \mathbf{q}'_4}{(2\pi)^d} \vec{m}(\mathbf{q}'_1)\cdot \vec{m}(\mathbf{q}'_2)\vec{m}(\mathbf{q}'_3)\cdot\vec{m}(\mathbf{q}'_4) \ \delta^d(\mathbf{q}'_1+\mathbf{q}'_2+\mathbf{q}'_3+\mathbf{q}'_4) $$
where the $t$ is $$\tilde{t} = t+4u(n-2) \int_{\Lambda/b}^{\Lambda} \frac{d^d \vec{k}}{(2\pi)^d} \frac{1}{t+K\ k^2}$$
Then you choose $z=b^{1+\frac{d}{2}}$ so that $K$ stays the same: $K'=K, \ u' = b^{-3d} \ z^4 \ u, \ \text{and} \ t'= b^{-d} \ z^2 \ \tilde{t}$.
My question is: why doesn't the $u$ inside $\tilde{t}$ become a $u'$ ? As I understand it, the couplings change with the cutoff, so shouldn't the $u$ be replaced with $u'$ wherever it appears? If not, why not, and what is the physical meaning of this? (Originally asked here but I decided to split into separate questions.)