I am trying to understand a very fundamental statement from the Book: Condensed Matter Field Theory from A.Altland and B.Simons:
Suppose we have a transformation:
$$x^\mu \to (x^{\prime})^{\mu} = x^\mu + f^\mu_a \omega^a(x)$$ and $$\phi^i(x)\to (\phi^{\prime})^i =\phi^i(x) + F^i_a \omega^a(x)$$
then we can compute the action difference
$$\Delta S = \int_V d^m x^\prime \mathcal{L}(\phi^\prime(x^\prime),\partial_{x^\prime} \phi^\prime(x^\prime))-\int_V d^m x \mathcal{L}(\phi (x),\partial_x \phi (x))$$
where we can express everything in terms of $x$ by using the transformation formulas and the Jacobi determinant. So far so good. Now comes the first statement:
(1) "So far, we did not use the fact that the transformation was actually meant to be a symmetry transformation. By definition we are dealing with a symmetry if for a constant parameter $\omega^a$ (e.g. a uniform rotation or global translation etc.) the action difference vanishes."
Yes I get that.
(2)"In other words the leading contribution to the action difference must be linear in the derivatives $\partial_{x^\mu} \omega^a$"
According to this answer to the Phys.SE question On a trick to derive the Noether current we just artificially added a $x$ dependence in the variation parameter. Then suppose we would have a symmetry then
$$\Delta S \overset{!}{=} 0 = \int_V [...]_1 \omega^a + j^\mu_a \partial_\mu \omega ^a \overset{\omega^a \text{is constant}}{=} \omega^a \int_V [...]_1=0 \to [...]_1=\partial_\mu k^\mu_a$$
This expression for $[...]_1$ we can replace in the formula for $[...]_1$ and integrate by parts once to get $\Delta S = \int_V J^\mu_a \partial_\mu \omega^a $ where we assume that the variation on the boundary $\partial V$ vanishes and $J^\mu_a=j^\mu_a-k^\mu_a$. After expanding the action difference in the derivative of $\omega$ we identify the Noether current.
Now comes the tricky part:
(3) "For a general field configuration, there is not much to say about the Noether current. However, if the field $\phi$ obeys the classical equations of motion and the theory is symmetric, the Noether current in locally conserved, $\partial_\mu J^\mu_a=0$. This follows from the fact, for a solution $\phi$ of the Euler Lagrange equation the linear variation in any parameter must vanish."
Is it correct that they just mean that by integrating by parts we arrive at $\Delta S = -\int_V d^m x \partial_\mu J^\mu_a \omega_a$. Then we use that $\phi$ is classically conserved which means that any linear variation vanishes?
I.e. $\partial_\mu J\mu_a =0$ which is the continuity equation.
So the only difference between the symmetry condition and the condition that $\phi$ obeys the equation of motion is that
Symmetry transformation $\to \Delta S \sim 0$ modulo boundary terms
$\phi$ obeys equation of motion $\to \Delta S = 0$ since all linear variations vanish
Is that correct?