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This is a problem from Analytical Mechanics, Fowles & Cassiday. I am not sure if the solution in the solution manual is correct, and I am not sure if my solution is correct.

A wheel of radius $b$ rolls along the ground with constant forward acceleration $a_0$. Show that, at any given instant, the magnitude of the acceleration of any point on the wheel is $$a_c=\sqrt{a^2_0+\frac{v^4}{b^2}}$$ relative to the center of the wheel and is also $$a_g=a_0\sqrt{2+2\cos(\theta)+\frac{v^4}{a^2_0b^2}-\frac{2v^2\sin(\theta)}{a_0b}}$$ relative to the ground. Let's call what's under the square root $A$ (in the expression for $a_g$). Here $v$ is the instantaneous forward speed, and $\theta$ defines the location of the point on the wheel, measured forward from the highest point. Which point has the greatest acceleration relative to the ground?

Showing that those magnitudes are correct is fine. For the last question, the solution manual simply states that the acceleration has its maximum at the top of the wheel. It then jots down the following calculation: $$-2\sin(\theta)-\frac{2v^2}{a_0b}\cos(\theta)=0, \\ \theta=\arctan(-\frac{v^2}{a_0b}).$$ It does not offer any further explanation. It's already problematic to me that this $\theta$ is zero (since they say it's supposed to be a maximum at the top of the wheel) if and only if $v=0$ at the top of the wheel, which I don't think is the case since the velocity vector for $\theta=0$ is $v$ in the $x$-direction (assuming that the initial velocity is zero). The last calculation of course arises as setting the derivative of $A$ with respect to $\theta$ to zero, where it is assumed that $v$ does not depend on $\theta$. Implicitly, it seems that they use the chain rule $$\frac{da_g}{dt}=\frac{da_g}{d\theta}\frac{d\theta}{dt}$$ to use the derivative with respect to $\theta$ instead of time. As $\frac{d\theta}{dt}=\frac{v}{b}$, the derivative with respect to $t$ is zero if and only if the derivative with respect to $\theta$ is zero. This is of course fine, but taking the derivative of $A$ with respect to time yields $-6\sin(\theta)+\frac{2v^2}{a_0b}(2-\cos(\theta))=0$, which does not give the same result for $\theta$ as what they say (in fact, I cannot find a closed-form expression for $\theta$). Obviously, you get the same result when you take the derivative of $A$ with respect to $\theta$ and when you do not assume that $\frac{dv}{d\theta}\neq0$. In fact, using $a_0=\frac{dv}{dt}=\frac{dv}{d\theta}\frac{d\theta}{dt}$ yields $\frac{dv}{d\theta}=\frac{ba_0}{v}$.

Anyhow, I am unsure of what's right (and why), so some help would be appreciated. Like I said, I personally find that the angle where the acceleration is at its maximum is defined by $$\frac{\sin(\theta)}{2-\cos(\theta)}=\frac{v^2}{3a_0b}.$$

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  • $\begingroup$ Please read carefully our guidelines for homework and exercise questions as well as check-my-work questions, which hold regardless of the origin of the question (i.e. formal homework, self-study, etc.). Your question looks on-topic to me (from an overall glance), but the tag still applies. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 2, 2020 at 15:52
  • $\begingroup$ It's not homework: I have not studied physics in 3 years and just came across this problem. But, if the community wants the tag there, let it be there! $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 2, 2020 at 15:57

2 Answers 2

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I think you are correct in pointing out that the acceleration relative to the ground is not a maximum at the top.

Using your notation $\vec{a_{\rm g}} = \vec{a_{\rm c}} + \vec{a_{\rm 0}}$ and you are asked to maximise the magnitude of $\vec{a_{\rm g}}$.

The point to note is that the magnitude of $\vec{a_{\rm c}}$ is constant and all that happens as the position on the wheel changes is that the direction of $\vec{a_{\rm c}}$ changes.

The maximum of $\vec{a_{\rm g}}$ will occur when both $\vec{a_{\rm c}}$ and $\vec{a_{\rm 0}}$, point in the same direction as shown in the diagram below.

enter image description here

From the diagram, with angle $\theta$ negative, you can see where the relationship $\theta=\arctan\left (-\dfrac{v^2}{a_0b}\right )$ comes from, without differentiation.

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  • $\begingroup$ First of all, thank you for your answer. This seems to be clear. I thought of the fact that those accelerations have to align, but this drawing actually turns that into an argument. Can you comment on how to understand why the differentiation has to be done in such a way that $v$ does not depend on $\theta$? Intuitively this of course seems fine, since they call it the instantaneous forward speed, but the math is tricking me into thinking something different. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 9, 2020 at 11:36
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    $\begingroup$ One assumes that the rim of the wheel is solid and does not deform so all parts of it move (rotate) at the same speed. $\endgroup$
    – Farcher
    Commented Apr 9, 2020 at 13:34
  • $\begingroup$ The differentiation was done with respect to $\theta$ at an instant of time. This means that as the time changes so does the angle $\theta$ at which the acceleration is a maximum. $\endgroup$
    – Farcher
    Commented Apr 9, 2020 at 16:28
  • $\begingroup$ That sounds weird to me. If you say at an instant of time, it's also an instant of $\theta$. If you stop time, the wheel does not rotate, so the angle also does not change. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 11, 2020 at 13:56
  • $\begingroup$ You are trying to find on the wheel at one instant of time the acceleration is a maximum given a value of velocity at that instant of time. $\endgroup$
    – Farcher
    Commented Apr 11, 2020 at 15:53
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$a_g$ is the acceleration at a given time, so it makes no sense to differentiate against time, since you want the maximum depending on theta you differentiate just for theta. No chain rule involved, at a different time you will have a different $v$, so the max will be at a different point.

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  • $\begingroup$ This answer makes no sense to me at all, I'm sorry. Why is it at a given time? Why would that imply that it makes no sense to differentiate with respect to time? The angle is different at different times, and the speed is different at different times, and the acceleration depends on $\theta$. There is always a chain rule involved. It might be useless, but that relates to the comments above about whether it depends on time. In any case, even if one assumes that $v$ does not depend on $\theta$, the two angles ($\theta=0,\arctan(...)$) do not coincide unless $v=0$ when $a_g$ is at its maximum. $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 3, 2020 at 8:21
  • $\begingroup$ Really, this does not make any sense. "No chain rule involved, at a different time you will have a different $v$, so the max will be at a different point". What does that sentence even mean? If it will be at a different point at a different time, it's not really a max now is it? $\endgroup$ Commented Apr 3, 2020 at 13:19

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