In the book of Prigogine, Modern Thermodynamics at page 29, it is given that
$$P(\mathbf{v})\,\text dv_x\,\text dv_y\,\text dv_z=\left(\frac{m}{2\pi k_bT}\right)^{3/2}e^{-mv^2/2k_bT}\,\text dv_y\,\text dv_y\,\text dv_z.$$
The main argument is that since by Boltzmann's principle, $P(E) \propto e^{-E/(k_BT)}$, by direct substitution, $P(\mathbf{v})$ should be given as above.
However, for a particle to have a velocity $\mathbf{v}$, it hast to have a kinetic energy $E = 0.5 mv^2$, and since the probability of latter is $\propto e^{-E/(k_BT)}$, when we have a energy $E$, there are infinitely many possible velocities a particle could have, so when we calculate $P(\mathbf{v})$, we should account for this degeneracy by dividing $e^{-E/(k_BT)}$ by the surface area of the sphere $v^2 = const$.
However, the book does not mention any such degeneracy; why ? what am I missing in here?