I have a question on the variational formulation of electromagnetism.
I read that the action is given by
$\mathcal{S}_{EM} = \int d^4x\ F_{\alpha \beta} F^{\alpha \beta}$ (1)
and the source term is given by
$\mathcal{S}_{source} = \int d^4x\ A_{\alpha} J^{\mu}$ (2)
My question is on how one obtains the above two actions. Here is the explanation that I read.
A.) For expression (1), by the Lorentz invariant of electromagnetism, the Lagrangian must be of the form
$c_1 F_{\alpha \beta} F^{\alpha \beta} + c_2(F_{\alpha \beta} F^{\alpha \beta})^2 + c_3(F_{\alpha \beta} F^{\alpha \beta})(F_{\sigma \tau} F^{\sigma \tau})+...$ (3)
Furthermore, we assert that the higher order terms (i.e. the terms including and after the second term) are all small, experimentally. (Alternatively, we can assert that they are small when we work in Plank units.) Therefore, we are left with the form of the action as in equation (1).
B.) We get equation (2) as follows. We want $\mathcal{S}_{EM} + \mathcal{S}_{source}$ to be invariant under the gauge transformation $A_{\alpha} \to A_{\alpha} + \partial \Lambda$ for any smooth scalar function $\Lambda$. Furthermore, under this gauge transformation, we get $\delta A_{\mu} = \partial_{\mu} \Lambda$, so
$\delta(\mathcal{S}_{source}) = -\int d^4x\ \Lambda \partial_{\mu} J^{\mu} + \text{boundary terms}$
We get gauge invariance if $\partial_{\mu} J^{\mu} = 0$ holds, i.e. if the charge conservation holds. Thus, we get equation (2).
In summary, equation (1) follows from Lorentz invariance and experimental evidence. Equation (2) follows from gauge invariance and conservation of charge.
The above formulation seems unsatisfying to me for the following reasons.
Argument A.) relies on experimental evidence which seems to not follow from general principles. Is there a way of coming up with this using only knowledge in, say Purcell?
All argument B.) seems to do is check whether equation (2) satisfies gauge invariance and charge conservation, and in particular, it does not help us come up with equation (2).
My question: is there a more intuitive way of "seeing" equation (1) and (2)? (For instance, in classical mechanics, the Lagrangian of a system is fairly easy to see since we can just take the difference of the kinetic and potential energies which in turn follows from undergraduate Newtonian mechanics.)
What I have tried: I noticed that $F_{\alpha\beta}F^{\alpha\beta} = \frac{1}{2}(\mathbf{E}^2 - \mathbf{B}^2)$, and I also recalled that the energy density of an electromagnetic field is $\frac{1}{2}(\mathbf{E}^2 + \mathbf{B}^2)$. This seems to be analogous to $L=T-V$ and $E = T+V$ from classical mechanics. I am not sure if this analogy is just a coincidence.
I tried Googling all of the above of course, but I could not find anything that satisfied me.