In my lecture the professor said that the mean value of a physical quantity- since it must be real- must satisfy the following condition: $$\begin{align} \left<F\right>=\left<F\right>^* \end{align} $$
$$\begin{align} \int\psi^*(\hat F\psi)\,\mathrm dr=\int\psi(\hat F\psi)^*\,\mathrm dr.....(\alpha)& \end{align} $$
With this, he's definiting a hermitian operator, as the operator $\hat F$ that makes the previous condition true.
Then he used it in the following passage:
$$\begin{align} \int\psi^*(\hat F-\left<F\right>)^2\psi\,\mathrm dr=\int\psi^*(\hat F-\left<F\right>)(\hat F-\left<F\right>)\psi\,\mathrm dr=\int[(\hat F-\left<F\right>)\psi]^*[(\hat F-\left<F\right>)\psi]\,\mathrm dr& \end{align} $$ I really don't see why the last step is true. The professor said he's only applying the definition of hermitian conjugate given in $(\alpha)$ to the part of the operator(that is to $(\hat F-\left<F\right>)$) but I still don't see it.
This is the only definition of hermitian operator we have seen, so please try to explain it without using matrices or brackets or any other notation, or without seeing the operator as a matrix, I know some about this stuff, but I would like to understand it the way he's doing it.
Any help would be really appreciated.