My problem is mostly with notation. When we apply the Euler-Lagrange equation to the Lagrangian scalar $$\mathcal{L}= -\frac{1}{4}F^{\mu\nu}F_{\mu\nu}$$ Where $$F_{\mu\nu} = \partial_\mu A_\nu -\partial_\nu A_\mu= \nabla_\mu A_\nu -\nabla_\nu A_\mu$$ and I start with $$\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial A_\mu}=\nabla_\nu\left(\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\nabla_\nu A_\mu)}\right).$$
Now I rewrite the lagrangian as $\mathcal{L} = -\frac{1}{4}g^{\mu\alpha}g^{ \nu\beta}(\nabla_\mu A_\nu-\nabla_\nu A_\mu)(\nabla_\alpha A_\beta-\nabla_\beta A_\alpha)$ $$\mathcal{L}= -\frac{1}{4}g^{\mu\alpha}g^{\nu\beta}\left[(\nabla_\mu A_\nu)(\nabla_\alpha A_\beta)-(\nabla_\mu A_\nu)(\nabla_\beta A_\alpha)-(\nabla_\nu A_\mu)(\nabla_\alpha A_\beta)+(\nabla_\nu A_\mu)(\nabla_\beta A_\alpha) \right]$$ My problem is calculating $\frac{\partial \mathcal{L}}{\partial(\nabla_\nu A_\mu)}$, how are the rules of partial derivatives generalised to covariant ones? Also, is $\frac{\partial\mathcal{L}}{\partial A_\mu}=0$, is that correct ?