I'm attempting to solve the 1D Schrodinger Equation, approaching a potential barrier defined as follows:
$$V(x) = \begin{cases}-V_0&\quad\text{for}\quad x<0 \\0&\quad\text{for}\quad x>0\end{cases}$$
where the inbound particle has energy $-V_0 < E < 0$ (Approaching from the left).
I've started the solution, as I would normally, for a barrier defined as:
$$V(x) = \begin{cases}0&\quad\text{for}\quad x<0 \\V_0&\quad\text{for}\quad x>0\end{cases}$$
But I've got a feeling that I may be wrong- does the vertical shift of the barrier (and the energy of the incoming particle) actually change anything?
Do I instead need to solve:
$$(\frac{-\hbar^2}{2m} \frac{d^2}{dx^2} -V_0)\psi=E\psi$$ for the region $x<0$?