To illustrate, I will take the step potential situation in one dimension.
We have a particle of mass $m$ coming from $-\infty$. The potential is $V(x)=0$ if $x<0$ and $V_0$ if $x>0$.
The usual way to treat the situation is to look for energy eigenstates (eg. take $E=2V_0$) and solve the time-independent Schrodinger equation.
A solution has the form $$\Psi_w(x)= \begin{cases} A_1e^{ik_1x} + B_1e^{-ik_1} \text{ if } x<0\\[3ex] A_2e^{-ik_2x} \text{ if } x> 0 \end{cases}$$
with $k_1$ and $k_2$ depending on $E$ and $B_1, A_2$ related to $A_1$ by continuity.
(see wiki)
This solution can't be normalized. Usually, the trick to give a physical sense to this kind of solution (free particle) is to say a non-stationnary solution is the integral (a fourier transform) of these eigenstates.
If I understand correctly, that means if I can express the initial state as $\Psi(x,0)=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}A(w)\Psi_w(x)dw$
then I can compute the evolution as $\Psi(x,t)=\int_{-\infty}^{+\infty}A(w)\Psi_w(x)e^{iwt}dw$
The wikipedia page about the Schrodinger equation suggests it is always possible to express the intial state as an integral of this form (it says it is a type of "spectral theorem", but is it? In my case, it does not seem obvious at all: what kind of energy repartition should I imagine here for an incoming wavepacket ? For a free particle, it seems right because we can use a fourier transform. But is it the case here too ?