0
$\begingroup$

Consider the system of equations formulated in a previous question (optical fibers continuity of tangent field components across the core-cladding interface):

$$ \left\{ \begin{array}{c} e_z^{(1)}(r,\phi)|_{r = a} = e_z^{(2)}(r,\phi)|_{r = a}\\ e_{\phi}^{(1)}(r,\phi)|_{r = a} = e_{\phi}^{(2)}(r,\phi)|_{r = a}\\ h_z^{(1)}(r,\phi)|_{r = a} = h_z^{(2)}(r,\phi)|_{r = a}\\ h_{\phi}^{(1)}(r,\phi)|_{r = a} = h_{\phi}^{(2)}(r,\phi)|_{r = a} \end{array} \right. $$

Its determinant should be $0$, to obtain a non-trivial solution for the unknown amplitudes $C_1$, $C_2$, $D_1$, $D_2$. According to Maxwell's equations, $e_{\phi}$ and $h_{\phi}$ depend on the derivative of $e_z$ and $h_z$ with respect to $r$ and $\phi$. Books use some tricks to avoid having a function of $\phi$ in the computation of these derivatives. See for example John A. Buck, Fundamentals of Optical Fibers, which assumes (Table 3.2):

$$A(\phi) = \cos (\nu \phi), \ \mathrm{for} \ e_{\phi}\\ A(\phi) = \sin (\nu \phi), \ \mathrm{for} \ h_{\phi}$$

The resulting eigenvalue equation is:

$$\left[ \frac{J'_{\nu}(k_{c_1} a)}{k_{c_1}a J_{\nu}(k_{c_1} a)} + \frac{K'_{\nu}(|k_{c_2}| a)}{|k_{c_2}|a K_{\nu}(|k_{c_2}| a)} \right] \left[ \frac{n_1^2}{n_2^2}\frac{J'_{\nu}(k_{c_1} a)}{k_{c_1}a J_{\nu}(k_{c_1} a)} + \frac{K'_{\nu}(|k_{c_2}| a)}{|k_{c_2}|a K_{\nu}(|k_{c_2}| a)} \right] = \nu^2 \left( \frac{1}{k_{c_1}^2 a^2} + \frac{1}{|k_{c_2}|^2 a^2} \right)\left( \frac{n_1^2}{n_2^2} \frac{1}{k_{c_1}^2 a^2} + \frac{1}{|k_{c_2}|^2 a^2}\right)$$

Consider instead (respectively for the Electric and Magnetic fields)

$$A(\phi) = C_3 \sin(\theta) + C_4 \cos(\theta) = C' \cos (\nu \phi + \alpha)\\ A(\phi) = D_3 \sin(\theta) + D_4 \cos(\theta) = D' \cos (\nu \phi + \beta)$$

(in fact, according to this answer, $A(\phi) = A \sin(\theta) + B \cos(\theta)$ can be re-written as $A'\sin(\theta+\rho)$ or $A'\cos(\theta+\alpha)$). In the most general case, $\alpha \neq \beta$.

1) How would the eigenvalue equation be in this more general case?

2) Is there any textbook dealing with this computation?

$\endgroup$

2 Answers 2

0
$\begingroup$

It would be too long to copy the whole procedure here. If I did not make mistakes, the result should be:

$$\left[ \displaystyle \frac{n_1^2}{n_2^2} \frac{1}{a k_{c_1}} \frac{J'_{\nu} (a k_{c_1})}{J_{\nu} (a k_{c_1})} + \frac{1}{a |k_{c_2}|} \frac{K'_{\nu} (a |k_{c_2}|)}{K_{\nu} (a |k_{c_2}|)} \right] \cdot \left[ \displaystyle \frac{1}{a k_{c_1}} \frac{J'_{\nu} (a k_{c_1})}{J_{\nu} (a k_{c_1})} + \frac{1}{a |k_{c_2}|} \frac{K'_{\nu} (a |k_{c_2}|)}{K_{\nu} (a |k_{c_2}|)} \right] = \\ = - \tan (\nu \phi + \alpha) \tan (\nu \phi + \beta) \left( \displaystyle \frac{\nu \beta}{k_{c_1}^2} \right)^2 \left( \displaystyle \frac{1}{a^2 |k_{c_2}|^2} \right)^2 \displaystyle \frac{\omega^2 \mu_0 (n_1^2 - n_2^2)}{n_2^2}$$

I did not find any book dealing with this case. Maybe the most relevant difference with John A. Buck eigenvalue equation is the $\phi$ dependence. There is not a single eigenvalue equation for any $\phi$.

$\endgroup$
0
$\begingroup$

The $\phi$ dependence is given by the solution of the Helmholtz equation in cylindrical coordinates. It comes out to be the harmonic function $\exp(i m\phi)$ where $m$ is an integer equal to the order of the Bessel function. Due to the boundary conditions, these harmonic functions cancel out, so that the only remnants of the $\phi$-dependencies are factors of $m$. In the end, the determinant produces an equation: $$ \left(\frac{J'_m(Ua)}{U J_m(Ua)} + \frac{K'_m(Wa)}{W K_m(Wa)}\right) \left(\frac{n_1^2 J'_m(Ua)}{U J_m(Ua)} + \frac{n_2^2 K'_m(Wa)}{W K_m(Wa)}\right) = \left(\frac{m\beta}{a k}\right)^2 \left(\frac{1}{U^2} + \frac{1}{W^2}\right)^2 ,$$ where $U=\sqrt{n_1^2 k^2 - \beta^2}$ and $W=\sqrt{\beta^2 - n_2^2 k^2}$.

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ $e^{im\phi}$ is the solution assumed by D. Marcuse, Light Transmission Optics. What you state is substantially the procedure presented there and I agree. But if I correctly understood the Helmholtz equation, this is only one form for the representation of the solution. Note also that it is a complex quantity. Another form is the real quantity $a \cos(m \phi) + b \sin (m \phi)$, which is the one I assumed here. I can't state if they are equivalent. $\endgroup$
    – BowPark
    Commented Jul 5, 2019 at 11:15
  • $\begingroup$ Yes one can use $\sin(m\phi)$ and $\cos(m\phi)$ instead of $\exp(i m\phi)$. Note however, the two trig functions represent different solutions replacing $\exp(i m\phi)$ and $\exp(-i m\phi)$. They would then cancel out in the boundary conditions. $\endgroup$ Commented Jul 6, 2019 at 3:42

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.