I am stuck from the mass operator to vertex function in the derivation of Hedin's equations. The problem could be organized as follows:
Mass operator: $$M(1,2)=i\hbar\int d(34)v(1^+,3)\dfrac{G_1(1,4)}{\delta U(3)}G_1^{-1}(4,2)$$ with $1=(x,t)$, $U$ is the external perturbation and $G_1$ is the single particle Green's function.
The total classical potential $V$: $$V(1) \equiv U(1)-i\hbar\int d3v(1,3)G_1(3,3^+)$$
Regarding alternatively $G_1$ as the functional of $V$ instead of $U$ and using chain rule and the following relation $$\dfrac{\delta F[h(\zeta);x,y]}{\delta h(z)}=-\int d\xi d\eta F[h(\zeta);x,\xi]\dfrac{\delta F^{-1}[h(\zeta);\xi,\eta]}{\delta h(z)}F[h(\zeta);\eta,y]$$ one can derive $$M(1,2)=-i\hbar\int d(345)v(1^+,3)G_1(1,4)\dfrac{\delta G_1^{-1}(4,2)}{\delta V(5)} \dfrac{\delta V(5)}{\delta U(3)} \tag{1}$$ from which one can introduce the vertex function $$\Gamma(1,2,3)\equiv \dfrac{\delta G_1^{-1}(1,2)}{\delta V(3)}=\delta(1,2)\delta(1,3)+\dfrac{\delta M(1,2)}{\delta V(3)} \tag{2}$$
How can I prove the equation $(1)$ and derive the equation $(2)$?
This problem is related to this paper. [(3.16)--(3.17)]
Thanks in advance.