It is straightforward to show from relativistic kinematics that a free electron cannot absorb a photon, as shown in this previous thread.
However, It is also known that using the Dirac equation, you can derive a magnetic moment associated with including an electromagnetic field (for example, in the derivation on page 11 in these lecture notes or page 2 of these notes).
Are the above derivations consistent/coherent only because the electromagnetic field is not quantized there, or is there some other feature (such as spin) that allows photon absorption to take place?
As a separate but related question, why is the Feynman diagram corresponding to the single loop correction of the anomalous magnetic moment even allowed? It seems that energy-momentum conservation as shown in the first link above forbids this process. What am I missing?