In "Quantum Computation and Quantum Information" by Nielsen & Chuang, on page 358, as well as in "Exploring the quantum" by S.Haroche & J.M Raimond on page 177, they consider the following.
We take a system $A$ that may interact with an environment.
$A$ is described by a density matrix $\rho_A$.
It evolves through an interaction with the environment $E$.
They say that, it is possible to express $\rho_A$ after its interaction with $E$ as a quantum map : $\rho'_A=\mathcal{L}_A(\rho_A)$ only if the $A$ and $E$ were not entangled at the beginning. Because else "It is then, in general, impossible to define a linear map deducing the state of $A$ after its interaction with E from the knowledge of $\rho_A$ alone" (S.Haroche book on this page 177).
But I don't understand this.
I could imagine a fictive transformation such that at the beginning I had $\rho_{AE}=\rho_A \otimes \rho_E$ and at the end $\rho'_{AE}=\rho'_A \otimes \rho_E$. Thus a quantum map could exist ?
Is it because that the map linking my $\rho_A$ and $\rho'_A$ wouldn't in practice verify all the postulates of quantum maps (like it wouldn't conserve the trace for example).
But actually, more generally, I don't see what the entanglement has to do here, indeed as we deal with density matrix, if $A$ and $E$ are entangled, it will just imply that $\rho_A$ is a mixed state. Why couldn't I describe its evolution with a quantum map ?