I've been taught that, to find a given observable, one most apply the Hermitian operator pertaining to that observable. However, the function the operator the observable is being applied to must be an eigenfunction of that operator. An example of such would be something like:
$$\psi (x,t) = A e^{-i(kx-bt)}$$
This would be an eigenfunction of the momentum operator With eigenvalue $\hbar k$. This literally is equivalent to $p$, so when I'm told that an eigenfunction of an operator is a function where $\hat p \psi = p \ \psi$, then I whole-heartedly agree. However, if
$$\psi (x,t) = A e^{-i(\sqrt{\tau}\ x-bt)}$$
Then, it is still an eigenfunction of the momentum operator with eigenvalue $\hbar \sqrt{\tau}$. This is still okay with me, as the momentum must just be that value.
What confuses me, however, is that none of the solutions to Schrodinger's equation that I've learned so far even are eigenfunctions of momentum.
For instance, the solution to the infinite square well is sinusoidal, and thus has a complex eigenvalue which makes the momentum operator not produce a real observable in this case. In addition, I'm doubtful that Hermite's polynomials, solutions to a quantum harmonic oscillator, will be eigenfunctions either. Gaussian wavefunctions aren't eigenfunctions of momentum either - although I know it doesn't have a definite momentum, clearly. This seems weird to me. Why am I being taught these things if it only works in such rare cases? Can the momentum of an infinite square well eigenstate not be measured? This does not seem obvious to me. I'm maybe close to getting it. Definite momentum is only achievable with plane waves, which is why my first example worked - but if operators only seem to work on plane waves why do we use them?