I have some trouble understanding isospin symmetry.
If we consider a system of a proton and a neutron as two different iso-states of a nucleon and we wish to write the wave function, do we have to apply the symmetrization postulate and come up with an antisymmetric function (since they are fermions), or on the otherhand we aren't subject to such restriction because despite of doing some abstraction to picture neutron and proton as 2 states, they are still distinguishable particles (due to different charge and mass, for instance)?
My question is very much related to this one Why must the deuteron wavefunction be antisymmetric? but I don't fully understand the answer: are proton and neutron identical or not? Or rather, is it valid to neglect interactions to make use of the symmetrization postulate? Finally, I also believe that part of my problem understanding these ideas relies on the fact that I don't really understand what does "isospin representation" mean (see the question mentioned above), so I would appreciate some clarification on that too.