This is a technical question not one of interpretation or philosophy.
On page 267, end of section 70 existence of spin, of Dirac - Principles of Quantum Mechanics, 4th edition revised (1968), it having been proved from QM and SR that all particles have 1/2 spin, Dirac notes that some particles are observed with integer spin. The resolution given is that the proof had the hidden assumption that the position is an observable. Given that Fermions all have 1/2 integer spin and Bosons integer spin - that appears to mean that no Boson has an observable position; at least not in any relativistic QM.
This conclusion seems technically and philosophically compatible with my understanding of QM, but I have not managed to find a clear statement that confirms or denies this as a known required conclusion in the literature or on forums. Just, statements such as that the photon position is not observable in GR or that massless particles ditto. Can one measure the position of a W-Boson, for example? Can this question be meaningfully tackled using Schrödinger QM? Or do we need QFT?
Actually measuring the position of a W-Boson seems difficult, due to its short lifetime. This clarifying sub-question is about the principle of measuring it.
What about Helium atoms?