1
$\begingroup$

I got stuck at the following bit from Dirac's book. In page 47, he introduces the probability concepts for the observables. He says that $\langle x|f(\zeta)|x\rangle$ denotes the average value of the function $f$ of the observable $\zeta$ at state (normalised) $|x\rangle$. He then defines: let $f(\zeta)$ be 1 iff $\zeta = a$ and zero otherwise. This is written as: $f(\zeta) = \delta_{\zeta a}$. He says now that $P_a = \langle x|\delta_{\zeta a}|x\rangle$ denotes the probability of $\zeta$ having the value $a$. Now, he states that if $a$ is not an eigenvalue of $\zeta$, $\delta_{\zeta a}$ multiplied to any eigenket of $\zeta$ is 0 and hence $\delta_{\zeta a} = 0, \implies P_a = 0$.

MY QUESTION: How is a $\delta_{\zeta a}$ ($a$ is not an eigenvalue) multiplied to an eigenket always zero? For an eigenvalue $b$, it is a solution of $b|x\rangle = \zeta |x\rangle$ for some eigenket $|x\rangle$. I don't quite follow how the previous statement follows from the definition of an eigenvalue. Can someone just provide some hints only?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

To be clear, the statement is the following:

Let $|\psi_b\rangle$ be an eigenket of the operator $\zeta$ with eigenvalue $b$ - i.e. $\zeta |\psi_b\rangle = b |\psi_b\rangle$. Define an operator $\delta_{\zeta,a}$ such that $\delta_{\zeta,a}|\psi_b\rangle = \delta_{b,a}|\psi_b\rangle$, where $$\delta_{b,a} = \cases{ 1 & $a=b$ \\ 0 & $a\neq b$}$$ Then, if $a$ is not an eigenvalue of $\zeta$, it follows that $\delta_{\zeta,a}|\Psi\rangle = 0$ for any arbitrary ket $|\Psi\rangle$.

If $\zeta$ is an observable, then we can expand any arbitrary ket in a basis formed by its orthonormal eigenkets: $$|\Psi\rangle = \sum_b c_b|\psi_b\rangle$$ where the expansion coefficients are $c_b = \langle \psi_b | \Psi\rangle$. Applying the delta operator, $$ \delta_{\zeta,a}|\Psi\rangle = \sum_b c_b\cdot \delta_{\zeta,a}|\psi_b\rangle = \sum_b c_b \cdot \delta_{b,a}|\psi_b\rangle$$

However, because $a\neq b$ for all $b$ (because $a$ is not an eigenvalue of $\zeta$), all of those $\delta_{b,a}$'s vanish, and therefore $$ \delta_{\zeta,a}|\Psi\rangle = 0$$

I implicitly assumed that the eigenvalue spectrum of $\zeta$ is discrete - this can be generalized to the continuous case by replacing the sums with integrals and the same idea applies.

$\endgroup$
1
  • $\begingroup$ Ok thanks. I didn't realise the relation between the delta function of the observable and it's eigenvalues. $\endgroup$
    – Lelouch
    Commented Oct 4, 2017 at 7:16

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.