I have always wondered (and thoroughly - but perhaps not enough - searched for literature) how the purely geometrical formulation of classical field theory (take for example a hardcore text on this subject like https://www.amazon.com/Advanced-Classical-Theory-Giovanni-Giachetta/dp/9812838953/) can be merged into the functional analysis-based formulation of (non-interacting) quantum field theory in the Wightman axiomatization, where the "quantized fields" are Fock space operator-valued distributions. So I guess, it should suffice to "marry" functional analysis (more precisely the theory of distributions or, more generally, linear topological spaces) to the diff. geom. approach, and by this I mean define all vector spaces (sets of field configurations such as sections of vector bundles/principal/associated fiber bundles, jets and sections of jet bundles, etc.) as distribution spaces. Long story short: How exactly is the naïve relation
$$ \left[\phi_A(x), \phi_B(y)\right]_{x^0 = y^0}^{PB} = f_{AB} \delta^3 (x ⃗ -y ⃗ ) $$ for generic SL(2,C) indices A,B which requires the "classical fields" to be distributions merged with the functional analysis-free formulation of classical (gauge + matter + gravity) field theory which would have the same $\phi$-s as "fields"?