Weyl spinors anticommute (see, e.g. Why isn't the anticommutativity of spinors sufficient as "spin-statistics-theorem"?).
If we consider the derivative, with respect to a Weyl spinor $\frac{d}{d\chi}$, does this derivative anticommute with a given Weyl spinor $\chi$?
To be explicit, consider the product
$$ \frac{d}{d\chi} \chi f(x) \underbrace{=}_{\text{product rule}} \left(\frac{d}{d\chi} \chi \right ) f(x) \pm \chi \left(\frac{d}{d\chi} f(x) \right ) ,$$ where $f(x)$ is an arbitrary object, such that $\frac{d}{d\chi} f(x) \neq 0$. Which sign here is correct? Does the product rule for spinors involve a minus sign instead of a plus sign?