This is a homework exercise, but I don't want specifically to tell me how to resolve the exercise. I want you to help me what's wrong here, and why I can't do it.
Water is pumped from a lake to a storage tank 15 m above at a rate of 70 L/s while consuming 15.4 kW of electric power. Disregarding any frictional losses in the pipes and any changes in kinetic energy, determine the overall efficiency of the pump–motor unit.
$$ \begin{align} P&=\frac{dE}{dt}\\ &=\frac{d(KE+PE)}{dt}\\ &=\frac{d(KE)+d(PE)}{dt}\\ &=\frac{d(PE)}{dt}\\ &=\frac{d(mgh)}{dt}\\ &=m\cdot g \cdot \frac {dh}{dt} + g \cdot h \cdot \frac {dm}{dt}\\ &=m\cdot g \cdot \frac {dh}{dt} + g \cdot h \cdot \frac {dm}{dt}\\ &=m\cdot g \cdot \frac {dh}{dt} + g \cdot h \cdot ρ\cdot \frac {dV}{dt}\\ \end{align}$$
It is the chain rule, if they didn't say the change of kinetic energy is zero, I would do it too. I just want to know why can't be done like this. The $\frac {dh}{dt}$ would be velocity that water goes upward, and $\frac {dm}{dt}$ the mass flow.
Bonus question: Can power be defined like that? Because I only see it defined as the amount of work done. I know that work is energy, but energy isn't only on form of work, so, can it be specified like I did?