I have a simple question about 1-particle-irreducible (1PI) diagram, I know I misunderstood something trivial but I just can not figure it out.
Following Introduction to quantum field theory by Peskin and Schroeder, the (connected) dressed propagator (see (7.43) on P.228) of a scalar field can be obtained by considering the contribution of two-point 1PI, $M^2$, namely, $$\frac{i}{p^2-m_0^2}+\frac{i}{p^2-m_0^2}(-iM^2)\frac{i}{p^2-m_0^2}+\cdots=\frac{i}{p^2-m_0^2-M^2}.$$
Now, by making use of the effective potential $\Gamma$, one may systematically introduce the $n$-point 1PI diagram. For instance, the three-point connected diagram can be built in terms of a three-point 1PC and three 2-point connected propagators. To be specific, see (11.95) on P.382, $$\frac{\delta^3E[J]}{\delta J_x\delta J_y\delta J_z}=i\int d^4u d^4v d^4w D_{xu}D_{yv}D_{zw}\frac{\delta^3\Gamma}{\delta\phi_u^{cl}\delta\phi_v^{cl}\delta\phi_w^{cl}}.$$
For a two-point diagram, it seems that a similar relation can be established. In fact, it seems that Eq.(11.93), $$\frac{\delta}{\delta J(z)}=i\int d^4w D(z,w)\frac{\delta}{\delta \phi_{cl}(w)},$$ can be interpreted that each additional derivative $\frac{\delta}{\delta J(z)}$ pulls out a connected propagator $D(z,w)$ from the diagram. The corresponding two-point 1PC is $$\frac{\delta^2\Gamma}{\delta\phi_{cl}(x)\phi_{cl}(y)}=D^{-1}(x,y),$$ its Fourier transform gives $$\tilde{D}^{-1}(p)=-i(p^2-m^2-M^2(p^2)).$$
My confusion is why the above $\tilde{D}^{-1}(p)$ is not simply the $-iM^2$ discussed previously, what does the extra $(p^2-m^2)$ stand for?