I'm reading through David Tong's lecture notes on QFT.
On pages 76-77, he gives a proof about correlation functions. See the below link:
I'm following the proof steps to obtain equation (3.95). But several intermediate steps of the proof are not clear.
First question
Why can we write
$$T\phi_{1I} \dots \phi_{nI}S=U_{I}(+\infty, t_{1})\phi_{1I}U(t_{1},t_{2})\phi_{2I}\dots \phi_{nI}U_{I}(t_{n},-\infty)\ \ ?$$
I mean, after dropping the $T$, shouldn't we have
$$=\phi_{1I}\phi_{2I}\dots \phi_{nI}S$$$$=\phi_{1I}\phi_{2I}\dots \phi_{nI}U_{I}(+\infty,-\infty)\ \ ?$$
Does $T$ relate to the $\phi_{1}\dots\phi_{n}$ only, or to the $\phi_{1}\dots \phi_{nI}S$ and $$U_{I}(+\infty,-\infty)=U_{I}(+\infty, t_{1})U_{I}(t_{1},t_{2})\dots U_{I}(t_{n},-\infty)\ \ ?$$
Second question
How do we convert each of the $\phi_{I}$ into $\phi_{H}$ using $$U_{I}(t_{k},t_{k+1})=Texp(-i\int_{t_{k}}^{t_{k+1}}H_{I})$$ to arrive at
$$T\phi_{1I} \dots \phi_{nI}S=U_{I}(+\infty, t_{0})\phi_{1H}\dots \phi_{nH}U_{I}(t_{0},-\infty)\ \ ?$$
Third question
Why do we have
$$U_{I}(t, -\infty)=U(t,-\infty)\ \ ?$$