Background
I have a rack and pinion gear system as shown in the image below
The pinion gear is attached to a flywheel at the back.
The first state of the system, none of the gears or the flywheel move. A time variant force is then applied to the rack, denoted by the arrow. The force function is similar in shape to a normal distribution.
The second state of the system, the pinion gear and flywheel rotate, and the rack moves in the direction of the arrow.
I would like to know what the angular velocity of the flywheel is. I have read somewhere that rack and pinion system have a 85-90% mechanical efficiency. Does that mean that 85-90% of the translation energy is converted to rotational energy or only 10-15%?
What I have done thus far
$$ m\frac {d\ddot{x}}{dt} = F(t)-loss$$
$$ I_1\frac {d\ddot{\theta}_1}{dt} = F(t)*r_1 - F_{f1}*r_2 $$
$$ I_2\frac {d\ddot{\theta}_2}{dt} = max(F(t)*r_3) - F_{f2}*r_2 $$
$F(t)$ is the applied force
$ {I_1} $ is the inertia of the pinion
$ \ddot\theta_1 $ is the angular acceleration of the pinion
$r_1$ is the radius of the pinion
$F_{f1}$ is the friction force between the pinion and the shaft ($ \mu_s*F_N $)
r2 is the radius of the shaft the pinion is on
$ {I_2} $ is the inertia of the flywheel
$ \ddot\theta_2 $ is the angular acceleration of the flywheel
$r_3$ is the radius of the flywheel
$F_{f2}$ is the friction force between the flywheel and the shaft ($ \mu_s*F_N $)
The question
Now, I know that something is not right here. How does the kinetic energy of the rack transfer to the pinion gear? This deceleration of the rack is the $Loss$ term, since I do not know how to formulate it, and then the same force (reduced by 10-15% or 85-90%) must then be transferred to the pinion and subsequently the flywheel.