1) In this answer, we present a simple counterexample that provides negative conclusions to OP's questions (v2).
2) Consider the quantum harmonic oscillator
$$H~=~\frac{p^2}{2m} + V(x), \qquad V(x)~=~\frac{m\omega^2x^2}{2}+V_0, $$
with an additional zero-point energy $V_0$. The exact energy-levels are
$$E_n~=~\hbar\omega(n+\frac{1}{2})+V_0, \qquad n~\in~\mathbb{N}_0. $$
In particular, the full zero-point energy reads $E_0=\frac{\hbar\omega}{2}+V_0$. And
$$N(E)~=~ \frac{E-V_0}{\hbar\omega}-\frac{1}{2}.$$
3) Now consider two such quantum harmonic oscillators $H^{(1)}$ and $H^{(2)}$ with different zero-point energy
$$ \Delta V_0 ~=~V^{(2)}_0- V^{(1)}_0~\neq~0.$$
Then one potential $V^{(1)}$ is shifted everywhere with a constant relative to the other potential $V^{(2)}$,
$$\Delta V~=~V^{(2)}- V^{(1)}~=~\Delta V_0 ~\neq~0. $$
Similarly, the energy-levels are shifted
$$\Delta E_n~=~E_n^{(2)}- E_n^{(1)}~=~\Delta V_0 ~\neq~0.$$
but the difference
$$\Delta N(E)~=~N^{(2)}(E)- N^{(1)}(E)~=~ -\frac{\Delta V_0}{\hbar\omega}~=~\text{const.}$$
is of the type requested in the question (v2).