I'm trying to understand the Wikipedia article on quantum teleportation. Since the two particles of Alice are not entangled, all base states $|i\rangle\otimes|j\rangle$ for $i,j\in\{0, 1\}$ of the tensor product are possible, so their common state is a superposition of these four states. The common state of the two entangled particles is a superposition of $|i\rangle\otimes|i\rangle$ for maximally positively correlated particles, because the correlation forbids anti-correlated states like $|0\rangle\otimes|1\rangle$.
Okay so far. Now Alice measures her two particles, and forces them both to collapse into one of the base states $|i\rangle$. Thus, I would expect the common state of her particles to be in one of the following states:
$$ \tag{1} |0\rangle\otimes|0\rangle \\ |0\rangle\otimes|1\rangle \\ |1\rangle\otimes|0\rangle \\ |1\rangle\otimes|1\rangle \\ $$
Instead, the Wikipedia article says they collapse into one of the Bell states:
$$ \tag{2} \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left(|0\rangle\otimes|0\rangle + |1\rangle\otimes|1\rangle\right) \\ \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left(|0\rangle\otimes|0\rangle - |1\rangle\otimes|1\rangle\right) \\ \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left(|0\rangle\otimes|1\rangle + |1\rangle\otimes|0\rangle\right) \\ \frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}\left(|0\rangle\otimes|1\rangle - |1\rangle\otimes|0\rangle\right) \\ $$
Why do Alice's particles collapse into $(2)$ instead of into $(1)$?