This is an attempt to answer your question in a somewhat more mathematically rigorous way, but still counting on your (physical) intuition.
As other posters have noted, the linear or translational momentum will not change when you apply the force in a way you described. This is made most apparent by observing the (non)movement of the centre of mass, but you can also 1) split the object into smaller parts, 2) draw vectors of acceleration and velocity of each, and 3) notice that the latter sum to zero. Since (linear) momentum is directly proportional to velocity, the total momentum also equals (and stays) zero. Newton's second law is therefore satisfied.
When dealing with objects that are not point-like, i.e. dealing with anything in other than just one dimension, you can define what turns out to be a useful quantity, angular momentum: $\mathbf{L}=\mathbf{r}\times \mathbf{p} $, where $\mathbf{r}$ is a position vector of a particle (or a part of a larger object, if you treat that part itself as point-like) and $\mathbf{p}$ its linear momentum.
In one dimension, the cross product as a mathematical operation is not defined and does not make sense, whereas for a point-like particle, $\mathbf{r} || \mathbf{p} $ are always parallel, so the cross product is zero. The angular momentum only makes sense then when dealing with (usually 3D) objects of finite size.
If you now repeat the process of splitting your object up into smaller parts and drawing the relevant vectors and the cross-products, you will realize the sum of angular momentum components does not actually equal zero. It is still conserved, however, so Newton's second law is generalized in that regard. Conservation of angular momentum follows directly from the conservation of linear momentum, simply noting its definition and calculating its derivative.
For convenience only, torque is usually defined in this context as $\boldsymbol{\tau}=\mathbf{r}\times\mathbf{F}$, but this is simply to ease notation.