I am studying the Kronig-Penney model as treated in the book by Kittel: Introduction to Solid State Physics.
In this model one considers a period potential which is zero in the region $[0,a]$ (define as region I), $U_0$ in the region $[a,a+b]$ (define as region II) and again zero in the region $[a+b, 2a+b]$ etc. etc., so the period of repetition is $a+b$.
One can solve the Schrödinger equation seperately in region I and II, yielding complex exponentials in region I. In region II one can have both complex and real exponentials, depending on the sign of $U_0 - \epsilon$. Kittel takes real exponentials without saying a word, but I guess that one should demand explicitly that $\epsilon<U_0$? Why can we do that?
Furthermore, the solutions in region I and II are tied together by demanding $\psi_I(0)=\psi_{II}(0)$ and $\psi_I'(0) = \psi_{II}'(0)$. But then the crucial step comes in: Kittel writes that Bloch's theorem states (in this specific case) that $$ \psi_{II}(a<x<a+b) = \psi_{I}(-b<x<0)e^{ik(a+b)} $$ and uses this to write $\psi_{II}(a) = \psi_I(b)e^{ik(a+b)}$ and likewise for the derivatives. These two conditions, together with the previous two yield two equations which give a consistency equation on $k$, which will have no solutions in certain regions, yielding band gaps etc.
I have some trouble understanding this. I understand that the crystal periodicity is $a+b$, but why does that mean that this combination occurs in the complex exponential? Furthermore, why can't we say $\psi_{II}(a) = \psi_{II}(-b)e^{ik(a+b)}$ (besides the fact that it will not help us solve the problem)? I do not really understand why one should tie the two different wavefunctions together in this specific way.