1
$\begingroup$

Let $h_k$ be a "first-quantized" (single-particle) Hamiltonian for free fermions with two internal states e.g. spin states, $c_{k,\uparrow}$ and $c_{k,\downarrow}$ respectively. $h_k$ is hence a $2x2$ matrix, and can be written as $$h_k=d_0 \mathbb{1}+\vec{d}\cdot\vec{\sigma},$$ where $\vec{d}=(a,\;b,\;c)$ is a vector of scalar parameters and $\vec\sigma$ is the vector containing the three Pauli matrices. I will assume that $d_0=0$, so $h_k=\vec{d}\cdot\vec\sigma$. Trivially, $E^{\pm}_{k}=\pm\sqrt{a^2+b^2+c^2}$, so the bands are symmetric around $E=0$. This Hamiltonian is symmetric under chiral (or sublattice) symmetry if there is a unitary matrix $U$ that anticommutes with the Hamiltonian, $$U h_k U^\dagger=-h_{k}.$$ If this condition is satisfied, it can be shown that $E(k)=-E(k)$, i.e. bands are symmetric with respect to $E=0$.

However, one can only find such a unitary matrix if some component of $\vec{d}$ is $0$. If all components of $\vec{d}$ are non-vanishing, then such matrix $U$ does not exist. However, even in the general case where there is not chiral symmetry, the condition $E^{+}_k=E^-_k$ is satisfied by construction.

My question is therefore, why does $E^+_k=E^-_k$ (i.e. bands symmetric around E=0) hold even in the absence of chiral symmetry?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

1
$\begingroup$

There is "no chiral symmetry" in the sense that one cannot find a matrix $U$ that satisfies the condition $$ U h_k U^{\dagger} = - h_k \quad \forall \, k. $$ That for all $k$ part is the important bit.

For each individual $k$, however, $\vec{d}\cdot\vec{\sigma}$ is always unitarily equivalent to $\sigma_z$. So the eigenvalues always come in pair. In fact, let the unitary matrix $J(k)$ diagonalize $h_k$, so that $$ J(k) h_k J(k)^{\dagger} = E \, \sigma_z. $$ You can verify that $U(k) = J(k)^{\dagger} \sigma_x J(k)$ is unitary, Hermitian, self-inverse and satisfies $$ U(k) h_k U(k)^{\dagger} = - h_k. $$

Such $U(k)$ exists for every $k$, but there isn't a one-size-fit-all $U$.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you! And the fact that $U$ must depend on $k$ restricts conceptually in any sense the role of chiral symmetry of the problem? I mean, can we say e.g. when classifying a topological insulator that these kind of Hamiltonians always possess chiral symmetry, or does the fact that there is not a unique $U$ $\forall k$ prevents us to make that statement? $\endgroup$
    – TopoLynch
    Commented Nov 22 at 10:36
  • $\begingroup$ @TopoLynch I am myself very recently educated by the helpful people here: [physics.stackexchange.com/questions/834150/…. Topological classification is meant to apply to an entire class of Hamiltonians, and the same symmetry transformation must hold for every thing. $\endgroup$
    – Vokaylop
    Commented Nov 24 at 12:44
  • $\begingroup$ There is no chiral symmetry for the family of Hamiltonian you wrote down, period. On the other hand, if you restrict the d-vector to a 2-dim plane, say the xy-plane, then you find a chiral symmetry in the unused $\sigma_z$. $\endgroup$
    – Vokaylop
    Commented Nov 24 at 13:08

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.