I was watching a Khan Academy video on the derivation of AC voltage across a pure inductor.
I understand the equation for the source alternating voltage. It's intuitive why the voltage is sinusoidal. However, the next step the derivation takes is equating the voltage of the inductor to the source voltage. This is extremely unintuitive, because if the voltage of the inductor were equal to the voltage of the source then there is no current in the circuit. This has left me very confused. How can we equate these two voltages but still have current? Is this because of Kirchoff's laws?
Edit: I understand that if we replace the inductor with the resistor current flows, but I don't see how this problem is analogous. Here the voltage of the inductor opposes the voltage of the source and if the voltages oppose each other and are the same magnitude then by definition the voltage has to be zero. If the voltage is zero, then by definition the current must be zero, so what is pushing the current? What is wrong with my intuition?
Furthermore, an inductor from my understanding creates a back voltage that tries to resist the change that caused it. So this back voltage opposes the voltage of the source and this is why I think the overall voltage must be zero and so the current zero.