I did an exercise for my Quantum-Mechanics Lecture: Let $\hbar$=2m=1. A particle in 1 dimension has $j(x)=2\ Im(\overline{\psi} (x) \ \psi'(x))$ and it's to show that there are superpositions $\psi (x) = a_1 e^{i k_1 x} + a_2 e^{i k_2 x}$, where $k_1, k_2 > 0$, of waves which propagate to the right at x=0 but j(0)<0.
You can show that by calculating j(0) which leads to a non positive semidefinite quadratic form in $a_1,\ a_2$.
(Remark: This superposition can not be normalized, but the exercise states that there are analogue waves which can.)
I have troubles understanding that. How can the wave (and therefore the probability of the particle to be at position x) propagate to the right when the current is negative? Maybe someone could explain me how to think about this?
Edit: The official solution of the exercise: "With $\psi'=i(k_1 a_1 e^{i k_1 x} + k_2 a_2 e^{i k_2 x})$ is:
$\overline \psi(0) \psi'(0)=\sum_{i,j=1}^{2}i\ \overline{a}_i k_ja_j$ and
$j(0)=\sum_{i,j=1}^{2}(k_i + k_j) \overline{a}_i a_j$
This quadratic form in $a_1, a_2$ is not positive semi definite because the determinant is given by $-(k_1 - k_2)^2 < 0$"