I am a first year math student taking physics $0$ right now and I got this problem on an exam. Suppose the mass of the ball is $6.0 \mathrm{kg}$ and it is accelerating at $1.0 \mathrm{\frac{m}{s^2}}$. You might wonder, how is the ball accelerating? Well the teacher didn't say, but I imagined it was gong down a hill or something. The question is , what's the force that the wall exerts over the ball when they contact? The intended solution was to use Newton's second law, multiply mass times acceleration and that would give you the force. Since the problem also states that the direction the ball was going in was the positive one, then the direction of the force the wall excerts over the ball would be negative, then the right answer was $-6.0 \mathrm{N}$
I did this in the exam, and got it "right" but I had my questions, like if the ball had just started accelerating from rest it would hit the wall with much less force than if it had accumulated bigger speed, so then knowing the acceleration and mass couldn't be enough information. I asked another teacher about this, he told me the right answer would be to look at the change in momentum, which we could calculate if we knew the velocity an instant before the collision and an instant after the collision. This change in momentum would therefore be the impulse or force times time, we could then get the force by dividing the impulse by the time.
My first question is, would the change in momentum always be twice the momentum before impact? Assuming of course the velocity just changes direction and keeps the same magnitude. If not, would we need to measure velocity twice? Once before impact and another time after impact in order to figure out the change in momentum? I'm guessing it depends on the material of the ball and the wall.
My second question is about the time, we're supposed to divide the impulse over time but how do we compute that time? In the physics experiment that we did in class, we just assumed it was something small like $0.2 \mathrm{s}$ and didn't measure it at all. If we wanted to be precise, would we need to count the amount of time that the ball and the wall are in contact and divide the impulse by that?
Lastly, it is my understanding that impulse is only equal to force times time when the force is constant, if the force is not constant impulse would be the area below the force over time curve. In this particular case, is it reasonable to assume the force is indeed constant and that we can find it by simply dividing impulse over time?
thanks and sorry if some of this is obvious, I basically didn't learn any physics in high school and I just started learning it in college this semester.