1
$\begingroup$

Relative Kinetic energy is given by

K.E = ($\gamma$-1)$m_0$c²; where $m_0$ is rest mass

but can it also be given by this

K.E= $\frac{1}{2}\gamma m_0v²$; where v is velocity of particle

can it?

$\endgroup$
1

2 Answers 2

3
$\begingroup$

In special relativity, the total energy of an object is given by; $$E = \sqrt{ (pc)^2 + (m_0 c^2)^2} = \sqrt{(\gamma m_0 v c)^2 +(m_0 c^2)^2}$$ where $p$ is the relativistic momentum $(\gamma m v)$.

The kinetic energy is the total energy minus the rest energy, so:

$$E_K = E - m_0 c^2 = \sqrt{(\gamma m_0 v c)^2 +(m_0 c^2)^2} - m_0 c^2$$

If you rearrange this equation you get : $$ E_K^2 + 2 E_K m_0 c^2 - (\gamma m_0 v c)^2 =0 \ .$$ This is a quadratic equation and the positive root is $$E_k = m_0 c^2 (\gamma -1) $$ in agreement with your first equation and as documented by Wikipedia.

If you take the Taylor expansion of this expression, the first three terms are: $$0 + \frac 1 2 m_0 v^2 + \frac 3 8 \frac{m_0 v^4} {c^2} $$

When v is small compared to c the terms with powers of v greater than 2 become negligible and the equation approximates to the Newtonian expectation $ 1/2 m v^2$. The Newtonian equation is not strictly correct and is superseded by the relativistic equation, but for velocities encountered in everyday mechanics the Newtonian equation is a reasonable and convenient approximation.

Your second equation $\gamma (1/2 \ m_0 v^2)$ is not equal to either the relativistic or the Newtonian equation for kinetic energy. For example, if we assume $$1/2 \gamma m v^2 = m_0 c^2 (\gamma -1) $$ this equivalence eventually reduces to $$\frac{v^2}{c^2} = 0$$ which can only be true if v=0.

How come it reduces to $v^2/c^2=0$ ?

$$1/2 \gamma \ m v^2 = m_0 c^2 (\gamma -1) $$

$$ \gamma \ v^2/c^2 = 2 (\gamma -1) $$

Substitute x for v^2/c^2

$$ \frac{x}{\sqrt{1-x} } = \frac{2 (1 - \sqrt{1-x})}{\sqrt{1-x}} $$

$$ {x} = 2 (1 - \sqrt{1-x}) $$

$$ 2 \sqrt{1-x} = 2-x $$

$$ 4 (1-x) = (2-x)^2 $$

$$ -x^2 = 0$$

$$ x = 0$$

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ How come it reduces to $v^2/c^2 = 0$ ? $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 15 at 7:20
  • $\begingroup$ @AgniusVasiliauskas Added how I obtained that result to the end of my question. Your result is not wrong. Mine is different because I opened up the gamma factor to expose the $v^2 /c^2$ and then solved for that. We don't disagree. $\endgroup$
    – KDP
    Commented Feb 15 at 9:23
  • $\begingroup$ Oh, I begin to understand. I get the same conclusion of $v=0$ if I equate $\gamma_{fake} = \gamma$. $\endgroup$ Commented Feb 15 at 10:06
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ The easy way is plot the two graphs and see where they cross ;-) $\endgroup$
    – KDP
    Commented Feb 15 at 10:09
2
$\begingroup$

No.

Relativistic kinetic energy is difference of relativistic energy and rest energy of object. To check that your proposal does not hold,- simply try to equate these expressions, like :

$$ \tag 1 (\gamma-1)m_0c^2 = \frac 12 \gamma m_0v^2 $$

Then after a couple of equation simplification steps (leaving this for you as an exercise), you will get that your gamma factor has form :

$$\tag 2 \gamma_{fake} = \frac {1}{1- {v^2}/({2c^2})}$$

This fake factor differs from true Lorentz factor $\gamma ={\frac {1}{\sqrt {1-{\frac {v^{2}}{c^{2}}}}}}$ mainly by 2 aspects :

  • Square root in denominator is lost
  • in your case, maximum possible body speed is $\sqrt 2 ~c$ which is greater than speed limit $c$.

Hence you can't assume new form of relativistic kinetic energy expression. It's already well-defined.

$\endgroup$

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.