I am not clear about the following argument why Laughlin wavefunctions have $1/m$ filling.
The single-electron wavefunction in the zeroth Landau level is \begin{equation} \psi_{m}(z)\sim z^m e^{-|z|^2/4l_B^2} \end{equation}
where $z=x-iy$. The probability density of $\psi_m$ peaks at a radius $r_m=\sqrt{2m}l_B$, so the highest $m$ state that is occupied satisfies $A=\pi r_N^2=2\pi N l_B^2$, where $N$ is the highest occupied $m$ state, and is also equal to the number of electrons. The degeneracy of the ground state per unit area is, therefore, $N/A=1/2\pi l_B^2 =eB/h$.
The many-body Laughlin wavefunction is \begin{equation} \Psi_m(z_1,\ldots,z_N)=\prod_{i<j}^N (z_i-z_j)^me^{-\sum_i^N |z_i|^2/4l_B^2} \end{equation}
for $m$ odd. The argument for filling fraction goes as follows: the highest exponent of $z_k$ in the polynomial for any $k$ is $m(N-1)$, so the radius of the Laughlin wavefunction is $r_{max}=\sqrt{2m(N-1)}l_B$ as in the one-body case. The number of electrons is constrained by the area of the sample as $A=\pi r_{max}^2=2\pi m(N-1)l_B^2=m(N-1)h/eB$. The degeneracy of the Laughlin state is $N/A \sim(eB/h) \times 1/m$ in the limit of large $N$, so the filling fraction is $\nu=1/m$.
My question is: How can we take the highest exponent of an electron in the Laughlin wavefunction and say that the many-body state will be confined within radius $r_{max}$ like in the single-electron wavefunction? Is there a more rigorous way to derive the filling fraction for the Laughlin state?
Any clarification regarding this is appreciated.