1
$\begingroup$

In 'Quantum Information by Stephen Barnett' (Page 95), we have:

$$ P(m, l)=\left|{ }_a\langle l|\otimes\langle m|\hat{U}| \psi\rangle \otimes| A\rangle_a\right|^2=\left\langle\psi\left|\hat{\pi}_{m l}\right| \psi\right\rangle $$ where $\{| l\rangle_a\}$ spans $| A\rangle_a$ and $\{| m\rangle\}$ spans $| \psi\rangle$. $\hat{U}$ is some overall unitary evolution that acts on the state $| \psi\rangle \otimes| A\rangle_a$.

With this, how do I obtain the following result mathematically? $$ \hat{\pi}_{m l}={}_a\left\langle A\left|\hat{U}^{\dagger}\right| m\right\rangle \otimes|l\rangle_{a a}\langle l| \otimes\langle m|\hat{U}| A\rangle_a $$

The thing is that the unitary acts on the tensor product state, therefore, in general, entangling it. I don't know how to mathematically work with an operator that acts on a tensor product state that itself doesn't have any mentioned decomposition.

Any help would be highly appreciated.

$\endgroup$
3
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Your question is, at least to me, by no means clear and self-contained. $\endgroup$ Commented May 30, 2023 at 18:42
  • $\begingroup$ @TobiasFünke it's not so bad, but I agree it can be improved. One question is how the Barnett result works: how can an operator on a tensor product state be equivalent to an expectation value for a single state? And the related question is how do operators on tensor product states work, in general? $\endgroup$ Commented May 30, 2023 at 20:21
  • $\begingroup$ @TobiasFünke Yes, there is an absence of context on what the above expression means, but as far as what the question asks, the question is purely a mathematical problem and probably doesn't require anything else. $\endgroup$ Commented May 31, 2023 at 4:33

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

You actually already have the result: one can always define an operator $$\hat{\pi}_{ml}\equiv (\mathbb{I}_s\otimes \langle A|_a) \hat{U}^\dagger_{sa} (|m\rangle_s\otimes |l\rangle_a)(_a\langle l|\otimes \vphantom{a}_s\langle m|)\hat{U}_{sa}(|A\rangle_a\otimes \mathbb{I}_s),$$ where I just added some parentheses, added a subscript $s$ for the system Hilbert space, added the subscript $sa$ to the unitary because it acts on both, and added identity operations for the system. We simply match the parts for each subspace to obtain $$\hat{\pi}_{ml}=\mathbb{I}_s (\vphantom{a}_a\langle l|\hat{U}_{sa}|A\rangle_a)^\dagger |m\rangle_s \vphantom{a}_s\langle m|(\vphantom{a}_a\langle l|\hat{U}_{sa}|A\rangle_a) \mathbb{I}_s=(\vphantom{a}_a\langle l|\hat{U}_{sa}|A\rangle_a)^\dagger |m\rangle_s \vphantom{a}_s\langle m|(\vphantom{a}_a\langle l|\hat{U}_{sa}|A\rangle_a) .$$ The operator in parentheses $(\vphantom{a}_a\langle l|\hat{U}_{sa}|A\rangle_a)$ is just an operator on the system.

As to the properties of $\hat{\pi}_{ml}$, one would have to prove more things, but that is not the focus of this question.

Why did we define it like this? We simply expanded the absolute square $|\langle a|B|c\rangle|^2=\langle a|B|c\rangle\langle c|B^\dagger|a\rangle=\langle c|B^\dagger|a\rangle\langle a|B|c\rangle$ to find $$\left|(_a\langle l|\otimes \vphantom{a}_s\langle m|)\hat{U}_{sa}(|A\rangle_a\otimes |\psi\rangle_s)\right|^2=(\langle\psi|_s\otimes \langle A|_a) \hat{U}^\dagger_{sa} (|m\rangle_s\otimes |l\rangle_a)(_a\langle l|\otimes \vphantom{a}_s\langle m|)\hat{U}_{sa}(|A\rangle_a\otimes |\psi\rangle_s).$$


Now, your main confusion probably comes from not being used to operators that act on two systems. So let's just be clear and say that any such operator can be decomposed as $$\hat{M}_{sa}=\sum_{ijkl}m_{ijkl}|i\rangle_s \vphantom{a}_s\langle j|\otimes |k\rangle_a\vphantom{a}_a\langle l|.$$ Making this operator unitary, or choosing whether it entangles two systems or not, depends on the coefficients $m_{ijkl}$, but such a decomposition always exists. This lets us compute things like, for $$\hat{U}_{sa}\equiv\sum_{ijkl}u_{ijkl}|i\rangle_s \vphantom{a}_s\langle j|\otimes |k\rangle_a\vphantom{a}_a\langle l|,$$ $$\vphantom{a}_a\langle l^\prime|\hat{U}_{sa}|A\rangle_a=\sum_{ijkl}u_{ijkl}|i\rangle_s \vphantom{a}_s\langle j| (\vphantom{a}_a\langle l^\prime|k\rangle_a\vphantom{a}_a\langle l|A\rangle_a).$$ This is just a new operator $$\hat{M}_s=\sum_{ij}m_{ij}|i\rangle_s\vphantom{a}_s\langle j|$$ acting on the system alone, with coefficients that depend on $l^\prime$ and $A$: $$m_{ij}=\sum_{kl}u_{ijkl} (\vphantom{a}_a\langle l^\prime|k\rangle_a\vphantom{a}_a\langle l|A\rangle_a).$$

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ Given $ P(m, l)=\left|{ }_a\langle l|\otimes\langle m|\hat{U}| \psi\rangle \otimes| A\rangle_a\right|^2=\left\langle\psi\left|\hat{\pi}_{m l}\right| \psi\right\rangle $, how do I obtain the expression for the pi operator? I understood we could 'define' the pi operator first and then show it satisfies our problem, but what if we have to do it the other way around? Just reverse-engineer it? $\endgroup$ Commented May 31, 2023 at 4:45
  • $\begingroup$ @PrathamHullamballi one simple expands the square and reads it out - see my edit $\endgroup$ Commented May 31, 2023 at 14:26
  • $\begingroup$ But @PrathamHullamballi one can prove these things in any direction, so it's entirely possible that the first person to think of it first defined the operator and then saw what it did. Regardless, the point is that expanding the square puts $|\psi\rangle$ and $\langle \psi|$ on the outside of the expression, so it kind of looks like an expectation value already -- then it's just reading off $\pi$ to show that it is indeed an expectation value $\endgroup$ Commented May 31, 2023 at 14:29
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ I very much appreciate your help. Thank you. $\endgroup$ Commented May 31, 2023 at 19:00

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.