I have a somewhat weird question regarding some problems I have been encountering lately when dealing with transformations of the general covariant derivative to cartesian coordinates and back. In the following, I will use Latin indices for cartesian components and greek indices for the general curved case.
In general, I have two sets of independent variables $v^i$ and $x^i$ or in the curvilinear case $v^\sigma$, $\xi^\sigma$, where $v$ are components of a sample space velocity and $\xi$ and $x$ are a parameterization of a position. The dependant variable is a probability distribution $f$.
We now consider for simplicity a term in the form of
$\nabla_\nu (v^\nu f)$
where $\nabla$ denotes the covariant derivative. When transforming this expression to cartesian coordiantes and the covariant derivative reduces to a partial derivative. I the have, since $x^i$ and $v^i$ are independent variables $\partial_i v^j=0$ and thus
$\nabla_\nu (v^\nu f) = \nabla_i (v^i f) = v^i \nabla_if$.
However, I do not see what stops me from transforming this back to the curvilinear basis and I thus obtain
$\nabla_\nu (v^\nu f) = v^\nu \nabla_\nu f$
which can only be true if $\nabla_\nu v^\mu=0$, but we $\xi^\nu$ and $v^\nu$ should be independent variables, which I have always assumed to mean $\partial_\mu v^\nu=0$ not $\nabla_\nu v^\mu=0$. ( I know that $\nabla_i v^j=0$ leads naturally to $\nabla_\nu v^\mu=0$ since the tensor equation should hold in any coordinate frame. However, it still seems a bit weird since we are explicitly seeking a form where the sample space velocity components and the position are independent of one another )
Maybe my assumption / interpretation of coordinate independence is flawed. I would greatly appreciate any input.