The dot product in 2D or 3D Euclidean space between vectors $\mathbf{a}$ and $\mathbf{b}$ with magnitudes $|\mathbf{a}|$ and $|\mathbf{b}|$ can be written as $$ \cos\theta = \frac{\mathbf{a}\cdot\mathbf{b}}{|\mathbf{a}|\,|\mathbf{b}|} $$ where $\theta$ is the angle between the vectors. So far so good.
Now using vectors in $\mathbb{C}^2$, we can find the inner product $\langle \mathbf{a},\mathbf{b} \rangle$ by finding the complex conjugate of $\mathbf{a}$ to get $\overline{\mathbf{a}}$ and multiplying that with $\mathbf{b}$ (I understand mathematicians conjugate the second term), giving us $$ \langle\mathbf{a},\mathbf{b}\rangle = \sum_{i=0}^{n-1} \overline{a_i}\,b_i $$ If we think of this as a generalization of the dot product, then we can think the above as also $|\overline{\mathbf{a}}|\,|\mathbf{b}|\,\cos\theta$ for the angle $\theta$ between $\overline{\mathbf{a}}$ and $\mathbf{b}$. This is not the angle between $\mathbf{a}$ and $\mathbf{b}$ because $\overline{\mathbf{a}}$ is not a scaled version of $\mathbf{a}$ - it points in an entirely different direction.
I find this confusing! We're not really generalizing one of the most useful properties of the dot product because we're not getting back something that can give us the angle between the two vectors. We're getting back a different angle, involving $\overline{\mathbf{a}}$ rather than $\mathbf{a}$. Yet I frequently see the inner product used as a generalization of the dot product in this respect.
Can anyone please straighten me out? Definitions are less useful than explanations, as I want to know where this line of thinking is in error.