In a conservative force field, we may define a function $U:\mathbb{R}^3\to\mathbb{R}$ such that $$\int_CFdx = U(x_A)-U(x_B)$$ and we call $U$ the potential energy associated with the force $F$.
I've read in multiple places (e.g. N F Taussig's answer to this post) that
$$\frac{d}{dx}U = -F(x)$$
and this is what I wish to understand properly.
My confusion starts in that the function $U$ is not a function $\mathbb{R}\to\mathbb{R}$, so it is not clear what it means to differentiate with respect to $x$.
Furthermore, we have that
$$\int_CFdx := \int_a^bF(x(t))\cdot x'(t)dt$$
for a function $x:[a,b]\to C\subseteq \mathbb{R}^3$ which I believe we may regard as the position $x$ of the particle with respect to time $t$. Note that the integral runs from $a$ to $b$, and, again, it is not clear what differentiating this expression with respect to $x$ means. Lastly, even if we differentiate with respect to $b$ we would get
$$F(x(t))\cdot x' (t)$$
so I have trouble seeing where the result $-F(x(t))$ comes from.