I've been reading the chapter about gravitational radiation of Schutz's book. In one of the sections, he begins with the linearized Einstein's equations and tries to find an intuitive solution:
$$(-\frac{\partial^2}{{\partial t}^2}+\nabla^2) \bar{h}_{\mu \nu}=-16\pi T_{\mu \nu}$$
With the form of wave equations, assuming the source has an oscillatory time dependence $T_{\mu \nu}=S_{\mu \nu}e^{-i \Omega t}$, we can reach a solution:
$$\bar{h}_{\mu \nu}=B_{\mu \nu}e^{-i\Omega t}$$
Where B satisfies $(\nabla^2+\Omega^2)B_{\mu \nu}=-16\pi S_{\mu \nu}$:
$$B_{\mu \nu}=\frac{A_{\mu \nu}}{r}e^{i\Omega r}$$
It has the form of an outgoing spherical wave.
Now here is the problem: in order to determine the coefficient $A_{\mu \nu}$, we have to make an integration over the source which generates the wave:
$$A_{\mu \nu}=4\int S_{\mu \nu}d^3x$$
My problem is that within the source, like binary inspiral neutron stars, where the field is strong enough that the linearized theory is no longer valid, is this kind of method about determining the coefficient legitimate when we want to determine the gravitational wave far away from the source?