I was reading this question Pressure drop in a pipe due to cooling and have a follow up question. Please note that the question is about an ideal frictionless pipe.
In the question, it is stated $$ \rho v = C_1$$ $C_1$ being a constant due to conservation of mass, which makes sense to me, that for every cross section there must be the same mass per second, but then $$ p+\rho v^2=C_2$$ is stated with the reason being "conservation of momentum". I can't find this equation anywhere else and the reasoning behind it also doesn't make sense to me. If we combine it with https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Bernoulli%27s_principle $$v^2/2 + gz +p/\rho = C_3$$ set $g$ to 0, we can get $$C_2 - \rho v^2 = \rho C_3 - \rho v^2/2 $$ and $$C_2 = \rho C_3 + \rho v^2/2 $$ and using the first equation (conservation of mass) we can get $$\rho C_2 = \rho^2 C_3 + C_1^2/2 $$ which implies that $\rho$ is constant, which seems completely wrong to me. Momentum is also discussed in the comments and everyone seems fine with using temperature/pressure when talking about conservation of momentum. What doesn't make sense to me is how do temperature/pressure contribute when discussing conservation of momentum. Conservation of momentum is about the total momentum, and raising/lowering temperature/pressure, don't affect total momentum. If you have a gas in a stationary box the total momentum is zero, and heating or cooling it won't change that.
Where does this equation and reasoning come from?