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Why is the resultant velocity of a particle inside a body undergoing rolling without slipping always perpendicular to the line segment connecting it and the instantaneous axis of rotation?

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$P_2V_2$ is the resultant velocity. $P_2V_2=\omega R^2+V_{CM}$
$P_0$ is the instantaneous axis of rotation.

Rephrased question: why is $P_0P_2$ always perpendicular to $P_2V_2$ for all $P_2$ situated inside the circle?

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  • $\begingroup$ That's the definition of rolling without slipping. If an object is rotating about a particular point, then by definition the net (rotational) velocity of each point will be $\vec r \times \vec \omega_{tot}$ where $\omega_{tot}$ is the net angular velocity with which the object is rotating, in this case about the point $P_0$. The vector $\vec r \times \vec \omega$ is perpendicular to $\vec r$ by the definition of the cross product. $\endgroup$ Commented Oct 6, 2021 at 17:20

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If ${\bf v}$ is the velocity of some material point belonging to the disk, and ${\bf v}_0$ is the velocity of the point of contact, then, since they are material points belonging to the same rigid body, they obey

${\bf v} - {\bf v}_0 = \boldsymbol{\omega} \times ({\bf r} - {\bf r}_0)$,

where ${\bf r}$ and ${\bf r}_0$ are position vectors to the respective points and $\boldsymbol{\omega}$ is the angular velocity of the rigid body.

The no slip/penetration condition provides ${\bf v}_0 = {\bf 0}$. Therefore, the velocity of a material point is given by

${\bf v} = \boldsymbol{\omega} \times ({\bf r} - {\bf r}_0)$.

Therefore, ${\bf v}$ is perpendicular to ${\bf r} - {\bf r}_0$ for all ${\bf r}$ belonging to the rigid body.

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